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NEET MDS General Pathology Flashcards
86 question-and-answer cards covering General Pathology as it is examined in NEET MDS. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the General Pathology deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
What is the most common type of renal stone and the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Calcium oxalate stones are most common. Membranous nephropathy (and FSGS) are leading causes of adult nephrotic syndrome; minimal change disease is most common in children.
What is the most common malignancy of the urinary bladder and its main risk factor?
Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma. Major risk factors are smoking and exposure to aromatic amines (aniline dyes); painless hematuria is the typical presentation.
What is the most common cancer in men's prostate and where does it typically arise?
Prostatic adenocarcinoma, typically arising in the peripheral zone (posterior); benign prostatic hyperplasia arises in the transitional zone. Gleason score grades it.
What HPV types cause cervical cancer and what precursor lesion precedes it?
High-risk HPV types 16 and 18. The precursor is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)/squamous intraepithelial lesion, progressing to squamous cell carcinoma.
What receptors are tested in breast cancer to guide therapy, and which subtype has the worst prognosis?
Estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and HER2/neu. Triple-negative (ER-, PR-, HER2-) breast cancer has the worst prognosis.
What is the most common pituitary adenoma and the hormone it secretes?
Prolactinoma (lactotroph adenoma), secreting prolactin, causing amenorrhea/galactorrhea in women and decreased libido in men.
What are the nuclear features and histologic hallmark of papillary thyroid carcinoma?
Orphan Annie eye nuclei (clear/empty), nuclear grooves, and intranuclear pseudoinclusions, with psammoma bodies. It is the most common thyroid cancer with the best prognosis.
What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism and its classic effect on bone?
Parathyroid adenoma. Excess PTH causes hypercalcemia and osteitis fibrosa cystica ('brown tumors' of bone), plus 'stones, bones, groans, and psychiatric moans'.
What adrenal tumor causes episodic hypertension and follows the 'rule of 10s'?
Pheochromocytoma (catecholamine-secreting tumor of adrenal medulla chromaffin cells). Rule of 10s: 10% extra-adrenal, 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% familial.
What is the most common functional pancreatic endocrine tumor and its classic triad?
Insulinoma. Whipple triad: hypoglycemic symptoms, low blood glucose (<50 mg/dL), and relief of symptoms after glucose administration.
What is the most common cause of ischemic stroke and the classic brain lesion of hypertension?
Embolic/thrombotic occlusion (atherosclerosis, cardiac emboli) causing ischemic infarct. Chronic hypertension causes lacunar infarcts and Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm rupture (basal ganglia hemorrhage).
What organisms cause meningitis in neonates versus young adults?
Neonates: Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria. Young adults: Neisseria meningitidis (and Streptococcus pneumoniae across ages).
What are the histologic hallmarks of Alzheimer disease?
Neuritic (senile) plaques of extracellular beta-amyloid and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, with cortical atrophy.
What is the most common primary malignant CNS tumor in adults and its histologic hallmark?
Glioblastoma (GBM, grade IV astrocytoma). Hallmarks are microvascular/endothelial proliferation and pseudopalisading necrosis.
What metabolic bone disease shows decreased bone mass with normal mineralization, and what shows defective mineralization?
Osteoporosis: decreased bone mass with normal mineralization (normal Ca/phosphate). Osteomalacia/rickets: defective mineralization of osteoid due to vitamin D deficiency.
What crystals are deposited in gout versus pseudogout, and how are they distinguished?
Gout: monosodium urate crystals, needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel). Pseudogout: calcium pyrophosphate crystals, rhomboid, positively birefringent.
What is the autoimmune muscle disease caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and its clinical hallmark?
Myasthenia gravis. Anti-AChR antibodies cause fluctuating muscle weakness worsening with activity (fatigability), notably ptosis and diplopia; associated with thymic hyperplasia/thymoma.
What is the histologic triad of eczematous (spongiotic) dermatitis?
Spongiosis (intercellular edema of epidermis), with a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate; chronic lesions show acanthosis and hyperkeratosis.
Differentiate pemphigus vulgaris from bullous pemphigoid (blistering diseases).
Pemphigus vulgaris: anti-desmoglein (desmosome) antibodies, intraepidermal (suprabasal) flaccid bullae, positive Nikolsky sign, 'fish-net' IF. Bullous pemphigoid: anti-hemidesmosome (BPAG) antibodies, subepidermal tense bullae, linear IF, negative Nikolsky.
What are the three most common skin cancers and which is most lethal?
Basal cell carcinoma (most common, locally invasive, rarely metastasizes), squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma (most lethal due to high metastatic potential).
What is the difference between agenesis, aplasia, and atresia in congenital anomalies?
Agenesis: complete absence of an organ and its primordium. Aplasia: absence of an organ due to failed development of its primordium (rudimentary present). Atresia: absence of an opening/lumen of a normally tubular organ.
What is erythroblastosis fetalis and its main cause?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn from maternal antibodies crossing the placenta against fetal red cells, classically Rh(D) incompatibility (Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus), causing fetal hemolysis, anemia, and hydrops.
What is the most common solid malignant tumor of childhood arising from the adrenal medulla/sympathetic chain?
Neuroblastoma. It arises from neural crest cells, may show N-MYC amplification (poor prognosis), elevated urinary catecholamines (VMA/HVA), and Homer-Wright rosettes histologically.
What is the most common primary renal malignancy of childhood and its classic histology?
Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma). It shows a triphasic pattern of blastemal, epithelial (abortive tubules/glomeruli), and stromal elements; associated with WT1 gene mutations.
What this deck covers
The General Pathology deck follows the NEET MDS General Pathology syllabus — 19 chapters and 72 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 4.5 cards per chapter.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 170 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
General Pathology flashcards FAQ
How many General Pathology flashcards are in this NEET MDS deck?
86 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these NEET MDS flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 86-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the General Pathology cards cover?
They follow the NEET MDS General Pathology syllabus — 19 chapters and 72 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.