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NEET MDS General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology Flashcards
50 question-and-answer cards covering General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology as it is examined in NEET MDS. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
What is the most common deep fungal infection of the oral cavity and its causative organism?
Oral candidiasis (candidosis), caused by Candida albicans, a dimorphic fungus.
Describe the stages of dental plaque biofilm formation.
1) Acquired pellicle formation, 2) Initial adhesion of early colonizers (e.g., Streptococcus), 3) Coaggregation/co-adhesion of secondary colonizers, 4) Maturation into a structured biofilm with extracellular matrix and quorum sensing.
What is the acquired pellicle and its function?
A thin, acellular, bacteria-free film of salivary glycoproteins that coats the tooth surface; it serves as the substrate for initial bacterial colonization in plaque formation.
Differentiate the four types (Gell and Coombs) of hypersensitivity reactions.
Type I: IgE-mediated immediate (anaphylaxis). Type II: antibody-mediated cytotoxic (IgG/IgM). Type III: immune complex-mediated. Type IV: delayed, T-cell mediated (e.g., contact dermatitis, TB skin test).
Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in saliva and other secretions?
Secretory IgA (sIgA), which protects mucosal surfaces.
What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
Active immunity: host produces its own antibodies after antigen exposure (infection or vaccine), long-lasting. Passive immunity: pre-formed antibodies transferred (e.g., maternal IgG, antiserum), immediate but short-lived.
What is amelogenesis imperfecta and its three main types?
A hereditary enamel defect. Types: hypoplastic (reduced enamel quantity), hypomaturation (normal thickness but soft/mottled), and hypocalcified (poorly mineralized, soft, easily lost).
What is dentinogenesis imperfecta and its classic radiographic feature?
A hereditary dentin defect causing opalescent (blue-gray/brown) teeth; radiographically shows bulbous crowns with cervical constriction and obliterated pulp chambers ('shell teeth').
Differentiate fusion, gemination, and concrescence.
Fusion: union of two tooth germs (results in fewer teeth). Gemination: single tooth germ tries to divide (normal tooth count). Concrescence: union of two teeth by cementum only, after root formation.
What is dens invaginatus (dens in dente) and its most commonly affected tooth?
An invagination of enamel/dentin into the pulp before mineralization, appearing as a 'tooth within a tooth' radiographically; most commonly affects the maxillary lateral incisor.
What is the most common odontogenic cyst, and from what does it arise?
The radicular (periapical) cyst, arising from epithelial rests of Malassez in response to pulpal necrosis/inflammation.
What is the most common developmental odontogenic cyst, and where does it occur?
The dentigerous cyst, which forms around the crown of an unerupted tooth (most commonly mandibular third molars and maxillary canines), attached at the cementoenamel junction.
What are the characteristic histological features of the odontogenic keratocyst (OKC/KCOT)?
A thin, uniform parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium (6-8 cells thick) with a palisaded, hyperchromatic basal layer and a corrugated luminal surface; high recurrence rate.
Multiple odontogenic keratocysts are a feature of which syndrome?
Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin-Goltz syndrome), caused by PTCH1 gene mutation.
Name two non-odontogenic (developmental/fissural) cysts of the jaws.
Nasopalatine duct (incisive canal) cyst and nasolabial cyst. (The nasopalatine duct cyst is the most common non-odontogenic cyst, showing a heart-shaped radiolucency.)
What is the most common odontogenic tumor, and its classic radiographic appearance?
Ameloblastoma; the multicystic/solid type classically shows a multilocular 'soap bubble' or 'honeycomb' radiolucency, often with root resorption.
What are the two main histologic patterns of ameloblastoma?
Follicular pattern (islands of epithelium with peripheral palisaded ameloblast-like cells and central stellate reticulum) and plexiform pattern (anastomosing strands of epithelium).
Which odontogenic tumor is known as the 'two-thirds tumor' and shows Liesegang ring calcifications?
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT / Pindborg tumor); it also shows amyloid deposits and a 'driven snow' radiographic appearance.
What is an odontoma and its two types?
A hamartoma of odontogenic tissues (the most common odontogenic tumor if classified as such). Types: compound (multiple small tooth-like denticles) and complex (disorganized mass of dental tissues).
Differentiate leukoplakia from erythroplakia in terms of malignant potential.
Leukoplakia is a white patch that cannot be wiped off and has variable (lower) dysplasia risk. Erythroplakia is a red patch with a much higher rate of dysplasia/carcinoma and is considered more dangerous.
What is the most common malignancy of the oral cavity and its main etiologic factors?
Oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC); main risk factors are tobacco (smoked and smokeless), alcohol, betel/areca nut, and HPV (especially oropharyngeal).
What is oral submucous fibrosis and its main cause?
A chronic, premalignant condition with juxta-epithelial fibrosis causing trismus and blanching of the mucosa; primarily caused by areca (betel) nut chewing.
What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor and its classic feature?
Pleomorphic adenoma (benign mixed tumor); it shows a mixture of epithelial and mesenchymal (myxoid/chondroid) tissue and most commonly occurs in the parotid gland.
What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor, and which tumor is notorious for perineural invasion?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor. Adenoid cystic carcinoma is notorious for perineural invasion and a cribriform ('Swiss cheese') pattern.
What this deck covers
This deck covers the General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology portion of the NEET MDS syllabus in question-and-answer form. Browse the full NEET MDS syllabus to see how it fits with the rest.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 165 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology flashcards FAQ
How many General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology flashcards are in this NEET MDS deck?
50 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these NEET MDS flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 50-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology cards cover?
They follow the General Pathology, Microbiology And Oral Pathology portion of the NEET MDS syllabus, in question-and-answer form.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.