NEET MDS Oral Medicine Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Oral Medicine deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What clinical features differentiate a benign from a malignant oral ulcer?

   Benign ulcers tend to have a soft base, regular shallow margins, are painful, and heal within ~2 weeks. Malignant ulcers are indurated (hard base), have rolled/everted irregular margins, are often painless early, persist >2-3 weeks, and may have associated lymphadenopathy.

2. List the differential diagnosis for a solitary, persistent oral ulcer lasting more than 3 weeks.

   Squamous cell carcinoma, traumatic ulcer, chronic infections (tuberculosis, syphilis, deep fungal), major aphthous ulcer, and drug-induced ulceration. A non-healing ulcer >3 weeks warrants biopsy to exclude malignancy.

3. What is the differential for diffuse oral mucosal vesiculobullous/desquamative lesions in adults?

   Pemphigus vulgaris, mucous membrane (cicatricial) pemphigoid, erosive lichen planus, and erythema multiforme; immunofluorescence studies help distinguish them.

4. How does direct immunofluorescence differentiate pemphigus vulgaris from mucous membrane pemphigoid?

   Pemphigus vulgaris shows intercellular ('fishnet') IgG and C3 deposits within the epithelium; mucous membrane pemphigoid shows linear IgG and C3 deposition along the basement membrane zone.

5. What oral manifestations may be the first sign of undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?

   Xerostomia, increased periodontitis, recurrent/persistent oral candidiasis, delayed wound healing, burning mouth, and increased caries; poorly controlled diabetes worsens periodontal disease bidirectionally.

6. What is the bidirectional relationship between periodontal disease and systemic disease?

   Periodontal infection/inflammation contributes to systemic inflammatory burden linked to cardiovascular disease, adverse pregnancy outcomes, and worsened glycemic control, while systemic conditions like diabetes increase periodontal disease severity—each adversely affects the other.

7. Which oral lesions are recognized as markers/indicators of HIV infection?

   Oral candidiasis (pseudomembranous), oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV-related, on lateral tongue), Kaposi's sarcoma, linear gingival erythema, necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis, and HIV-associated salivary gland disease.

8. What oral findings suggest an underlying nutritional/hematinic deficiency?

   Angular cheilitis, atrophic glossitis (smooth depapillated tongue), burning mouth, mucosal pallor, and recurrent aphthous ulcers point to deficiency of iron, folate, or vitamin B12.

9. What is Plummer-Vinson (Paterson-Kelly) syndrome and its oral/systemic significance?

   It is the triad of iron-deficiency anemia, dysphagia (from esophageal webs), and atrophic glossitis; it carries an increased risk of oral and esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.

10. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis regimen for prevention of infective endocarditis before invasive dental procedures in eligible patients?

    A single dose of amoxicillin 2 g orally (50 mg/kg in children) 30-60 minutes before the procedure; for penicillin allergy, clindamycin has historically been used (now often azithromycin/clarithromycin or cephalexin per updated guidance).

11. What precautions are needed when treating a patient on warfarin requiring dental extraction?

    Check the INR within 24-72 hours; if INR is within therapeutic range (generally ≤3.5-4.0), proceed without stopping warfarin, use local hemostatic measures (sutures, oxidized cellulose, tranexamic acid mouthwash), and avoid NSAIDs.

12. How should dental management be timed for a patient who has had a recent myocardial infarction?

    Elective dental treatment should be deferred, traditionally for at least 6 months (or until cardiologist clearance) after an MI; only emergency care with stress reduction, supplemental oxygen, and ECG/vital monitoring should be provided sooner.

13. What is the main concern when performing invasive dental procedures in a patient on IV bisphosphonates or antiresorptive therapy?

    Risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ); minimize extractions and bony surgery, complete dental treatment before therapy when possible, and emphasize prevention and atraumatic technique.

14. What adrenal precaution is relevant for patients on long-term systemic corticosteroids undergoing dental surgery?

    Risk of adrenal crisis due to suppressed cortisol response to stress; assess the need for supplemental ('stress dose') steroids for major procedures, schedule morning appointments, and minimize stress and pain.

15. What is the first-line local pharmacological treatment for symptomatic oral lichen planus or erosive mucosal lesions?

    Topical corticosteroids (e.g., triamcinolone acetonide in orabase, clobetasol or fluocinonide gel, or betamethasone/dexamethasone mouth rinse), with antifungal cover if needed; severe cases may require systemic corticosteroids.

16. What is the topical treatment of choice for oral pseudomembranous candidiasis, and the systemic alternative?

    Topical: nystatin oral suspension or clotrimazole troches. Systemic alternative for extensive/refractory cases or immunocompromised patients: fluconazole.

17. What are first-line systemic pharmacological agents for trigeminal neuralgia?

    Carbamazepine is the first-line drug; oxcarbazepine is an alternative. Baclofen, gabapentin, pregabalin, and lamotrigine are used as adjuncts or second-line agents.

18. Which analgesic class should generally be avoided in patients with peptic ulcer disease, bleeding risk, or on anticoagulants, and what is preferred?

    NSAIDs should be avoided due to GI bleeding and antiplatelet effects; paracetamol (acetaminophen) is the preferred analgesic in these patients.

19. What pharmacological agents are used to manage xerostomia by stimulating salivary flow?

    Cholinergic sialogogues—pilocarpine and cevimeline—stimulate residual functioning salivary tissue; they are contraindicated in uncontrolled asthma, narrow-angle glaucoma, and significant cardiac/pulmonary disease.

20. Give examples of non-pharmacological management strategies for temporomandibular disorders (TMD).

    Patient education and reassurance, soft diet and jaw rest, occlusal splints/stabilization appliances, physiotherapy and jaw exercises, moist heat/cold application, and cognitive behavioral/relaxation therapy for parafunctional habits.

21. What non-pharmacological measures help manage burning mouth syndrome and dry mouth?

    For burning mouth: cognitive behavioral therapy, stress reduction, and avoiding irritants (acidic/spicy foods, alcohol-containing rinses). For dry mouth: frequent sips of water, sugar-free chewing gum, saliva substitutes, humidified air, and good oral hygiene to prevent caries.

22. What is genomic medicine and how is it applied in oral healthcare?

    Genomic medicine uses an individual's genomic information to guide diagnosis, risk prediction, and treatment. In oral health it supports identifying genetic susceptibility to periodontitis and oral cancer, diagnosing inherited conditions (e.g., amelogenesis imperfecta), and pharmacogenomic tailoring of drugs.

23. What is pharmacogenomics and give one example relevant to dental/oral medicine prescribing?

    Pharmacogenomics studies how genetic variation affects drug response. Example: CYP2C9 and VKORC1 genotypes influence warfarin dosing, and CYP2D6 variation affects codeine metabolism (poor metabolizers get little analgesia; ultra-rapid metabolizers risk toxicity).

24. What is teledentistry/telemedicine in oral health and what are its main modalities and benefits?

    Teledentistry is the use of telecommunications and information technology to deliver oral health care, consultation, education, and triage remotely. Modalities include synchronous (real-time video), asynchronous (store-and-forward of images/records), remote monitoring, and mobile health. Benefits include improved access for rural/underserved populations, early screening/triage, reduced cost, and specialist referral support.

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