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NEET MDS General Medicine Flashcards
60 question-and-answer cards covering General Medicine as it is examined in NEET MDS. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the General Medicine deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, and how does it respond to treatment?
Minimal change disease; it is highly responsive to corticosteroids.
What are the diagnostic glucose criteria for diabetes mellitus?
HbA1c ≥6.5%, fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL, 2-hour OGTT glucose ≥200 mg/dL, or random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with classic symptoms.
Contrast the pathophysiology of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Type 1: autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells causing absolute insulin deficiency. Type 2: insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency/secretory defect.
How do thyroid function tests differ in primary hypothyroidism versus primary hyperthyroidism?
Primary hypothyroidism: high TSH, low free T4. Primary hyperthyroidism: low (suppressed) TSH, high free T4/T3.
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, and what antibody is associated?
Graves' disease, caused by TSH-receptor stimulating antibodies (TRAb/thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins).
Compare Cushing's syndrome and Addison's disease.
Cushing's syndrome: cortisol excess (weight gain, moon face, striae, hypertension, hyperglycemia). Addison's disease: primary adrenal insufficiency with cortisol and aldosterone deficiency (fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia).
What hormone excess characterizes acromegaly, and what is its usual cause?
Excess growth hormone (and IGF-1), usually from a pituitary somatotroph adenoma; occurring before epiphyseal closure it causes gigantism.
How is anemia morphologically classified by MCV, with one example each?
Microcytic (MCV <80): iron deficiency. Normocytic (80-100): anemia of chronic disease, acute blood loss. Macrocytic (MCV >100): B12/folate deficiency (megaloblastic).
What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia worldwide, and its classic iron-study pattern?
Iron deficiency anemia: low serum ferritin, low serum iron, high TIBC/transferrin, low transferrin saturation.
Differentiate acute from chronic leukemia by blast count and onset.
Acute leukemia: rapid onset, ≥20% blasts in marrow, immature cells (AML, ALL). Chronic leukemia: insidious onset, accumulation of more mature cells (CML with Philadelphia chromosome, CLL).
What pathognomonic cell distinguishes Hodgkin from non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
The Reed-Sternberg cell, characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma.
Contrast the coagulation defects in hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease.
Hemophilia A: X-linked deficiency of factor VIII, prolonged aPTT, deep tissue/joint bleeding. von Willebrand disease: deficient/defective vWF, prolonged bleeding time, mucocutaneous bleeding, autosomal inheritance (most common inherited bleeding disorder).
What laboratory abnormalities characterize disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen, low platelets, and elevated D-dimer/fibrin degradation products, with schistocytes on smear.
Which autoantibodies are most specific for rheumatoid arthritis, and what is the classic joint pattern?
Anti-CCP (anti-citrullinated peptide) antibodies are most specific (RF is sensitive but less specific). Symmetric polyarthritis of small joints (MCP, PIP) with morning stiffness >1 hour, sparing the DIP joints.
Which autoantibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) and anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies; ANA is sensitive (screening) but not specific.
What crystal causes gout, and how does it appear under polarized light?
Monosodium urate crystals: needle-shaped and negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to the polarizer).
What antibody is associated with diffuse scleroderma versus limited (CREST) scleroderma?
Diffuse systemic sclerosis: anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I). Limited/CREST: anti-centromere antibody. (CREST = Calcinosis, Raynaud's, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia.)
What CD4 count defines AIDS, and which infections are AIDS-defining?
CD4 count <200 cells/mm3 (or an AIDS-defining illness). Examples: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, esophageal candidiasis, CMV retinitis, Kaposi sarcoma, cerebral toxoplasmosis.
What is the standard first-line drug regimen for new-onset drug-sensitive tuberculosis?
Intensive phase: Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (RIPE) for 2 months, then continuation phase of Rifampin + Isoniazid for 4 months (total 6 months).
Which Plasmodium species causes the most severe (cerebral) malaria, and what is the treatment of choice for severe malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum causes severe/cerebral malaria; IV artesunate is the treatment of choice for severe disease.
What are the warning signs of severe/complicated dengue fever?
Abdominal pain/tenderness, persistent vomiting, plasma leakage signs (pleural effusion, ascites), mucosal bleeding, lethargy/restlessness, hepatomegaly >2 cm, and a rising hematocrit with rapid platelet drop.
What is the classic peripheral smear and platelet finding in dengue fever?
Thrombocytopenia (low platelets), leukopenia, and hemoconcentration (raised hematocrit); NS1 antigen is positive early and IgM/IgG serology later.
What ECG territory and coronary artery correspond to an inferior wall MI?
Inferior MI shows changes in leads II, III, and aVF, usually due to occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA).
What is the most common sustained arrhythmia, and what is its main thromboembolic complication?
Atrial fibrillation; its major complication is ischemic stroke from left atrial (appendage) thrombus embolization.
What this deck covers
The General Medicine deck follows the NEET MDS General Medicine syllabus — 9 chapters and 36 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 6.7 cards per chapter.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 148 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
General Medicine flashcards FAQ
How many General Medicine flashcards are in this NEET MDS deck?
60 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these NEET MDS flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 60-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the General Medicine cards cover?
They follow the NEET MDS General Medicine syllabus — 9 chapters and 36 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.