INI CET Paediatrics Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Paediatrics deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. At what age is the BCG vaccine given and what does it protect against?

   Given at birth; protects against severe forms of tuberculosis (miliary TB and TB meningitis).

2. What is the pathognomonic clinical sign of measles, and what vaccine prevents it?

   Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa); prevented by the measles (MMR/MR) vaccine.

3. What is the pathophysiology of asthma?

   Chronic airway inflammation with reversible bronchoconstriction, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, mucosal oedema, and mucus hypersecretion causing airflow obstruction.

4. What is the first-line reliever and the first-line controller therapy for childhood asthma?

   Reliever: short-acting beta-2 agonist (e.g., salbutamol). Controller: inhaled corticosteroids.

5. How is bronchiolitis primarily managed?

   Supportive care - oxygen, hydration, and nasal suction; bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics are generally not recommended.

6. What is the inheritance pattern and underlying defect in cystic fibrosis?

   Autosomal recessive; mutation in the CFTR gene (commonly delta F508) impairing chloride transport, causing thick secretions.

7. What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis?

   The sweat chloride test (elevated sweat chloride >60 mmol/L is diagnostic).

8. What is the WHO classification of dehydration severity in diarrhoeal disease?

   No dehydration (Plan A), some/moderate dehydration (Plan B - ORS), and severe dehydration (Plan C - IV fluids).

9. What is the composition rationale of low-osmolarity ORS and its recommended use?

   Reduced sodium and glucose (245 mOsm/L) decreasing stool output and vomiting; used to prevent/treat dehydration in diarrhoea, with zinc supplementation for 14 days.

10. What are the clinical features and first-line management of GERD in infants?

    Regurgitation, irritability, feeding refusal, failure to thrive; managed with positional/feeding measures and thickened feeds first, then PPIs/H2 blockers if pathological.

11. Differentiate marasmus from kwashiorkor.

    Marasmus: severe wasting, no oedema, marked weight loss (deficiency of all nutrients). Kwashiorkor: oedema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, relatively preserved weight (protein deficiency).

12. What WHO criteria define severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children 6-59 months?

    Weight-for-height <-3 SD, MUAC <11.5 cm, or bilateral pitting oedema.

13. What is the most common congenital heart defect overall, and is it cyanotic or acyanotic?

    Ventricular septal defect (VSD); it is an acyanotic, left-to-right shunt lesion.

14. What murmur characterises a VSD, and what is its potential late complication?

    Harsh pansystolic (holosystolic) murmur at the left lower sternal border; can lead to pulmonary hypertension and Eisenmenger syndrome if uncorrected.

15. What is the characteristic auscultatory finding of an atrial septal defect (ASD)?

    Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound (S2) with an ejection systolic murmur at the pulmonary area.

16. What clinical sign and murmur are characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

    Continuous 'machinery' murmur (best at left infraclavicular area) with wide pulse pressure and bounding pulses.

17. What are the four anatomical components of Tetralogy of Fallot?

    1) Ventricular septal defect, 2) Overriding aorta, 3) Pulmonary stenosis (RV outflow obstruction), 4) Right ventricular hypertrophy.

18. What is a 'tet spell' and how is it managed acutely?

    A hypercyanotic episode in Tetralogy of Fallot; managed by knee-chest position, oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, and beta-blockers/phenylephrine to increase systemic vascular resistance.

19. What classic radiographic signs are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot and coarctation of the aorta?

    Tetralogy of Fallot: 'boot-shaped' heart. Coarctation: 'figure-3' sign and rib notching on chest X-ray.

20. What is the classic clinical finding of coarctation of the aorta on examination?

    Radio-femoral delay with upper-limb hypertension and weak/delayed lower-limb pulses (blood pressure higher in arms than legs).

21. What are the diagnostic criteria for a SIMPLE febrile seizure?

    Generalised, lasting <15 minutes, occurring once in 24 hours, in a child 6 months-5 years with fever and no CNS infection or focal neurological deficit.

22. How does a COMPLEX febrile seizure differ from a simple one, and what is its significance?

    Complex: focal, lasts >15 minutes, or recurs within 24 hours; associated with higher risk of later epilepsy and warrants further evaluation.

23. What are the first-line treatments for allergic rhinitis and anaphylaxis in children?

    Allergic rhinitis: intranasal corticosteroids (and oral antihistamines). Anaphylaxis: intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.01 mg/kg into the anterolateral thigh, given immediately.

24. What is atopic dermatitis (eczema), its hallmark feature, and how does its distribution change with age?

    A chronic, relapsing, itchy inflammatory skin condition (intense pruritus is the hallmark); affects face/extensor surfaces in infants and flexural areas (antecubital/popliteal fossae) in older children.

What this deck covers

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