INI CET Medicine And Allied Specialties Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Medicine And Allied Specialties deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What are the core diagnostic features of Parkinson's disease?

   Bradykinesia plus at least one of: resting (pill-rolling) tremor, rigidity (cogwheel), or postural instability; due to loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta.

2. What are the DSM-5 core symptom domains required to diagnose a major depressive episode?

   At least 5 of 9 symptoms for ≥2 weeks, including at least one of depressed mood or anhedonia, plus sleep change, appetite/weight change, fatigue, guilt/worthlessness, poor concentration, psychomotor change, and suicidal ideation.

3. What is the minimum duration of continuous disturbance required to diagnose schizophrenia by DSM-5?

   At least 6 months of continuous signs, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms (e.g., delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech).

4. What is the first-line drug class for both major depressive disorder and most anxiety disorders?

   Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

5. What are the clinical features of serotonin syndrome?

   The triad of neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus, hyperreflexia, tremor), autonomic instability (hyperthermia, tachycardia, diaphoresis), and altered mental status, typically after serotonergic drug excess.

6. What clinical instrument is commonly used to screen for cognitive impairment/dementia in geriatric patients?

   The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA); MoCA is more sensitive for mild cognitive impairment.

7. What polysomnographic criterion defines obstructive sleep apnea severity by the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI)?

   Mild: AHI 5-15. Moderate: AHI 15-30. Severe: AHI >30 events per hour of sleep.

8. What is the most common cause of impetigo, and how do non-bullous and bullous forms differ?

   Staphylococcus aureus (also Streptococcus pyogenes). Non-bullous impetigo shows honey-colored crusts; bullous impetigo is caused by S. aureus exfoliative toxin producing flaccid blisters.

9. How do scabies and pediculosis differ in their causative organism and classic lesion?

   Scabies is caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, producing burrows with intense nocturnal itch in web spaces; pediculosis is caused by lice (Pediculus/Pthirus) with visible nits attached to hair shafts.

10. What distinguishes psoriasis from lichen planus among papulosquamous disorders?

    Psoriasis: well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale, Auspitz sign, extensor surfaces. Lichen planus: the 6 P's (pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules) with Wickham striae, flexor surfaces and oral involvement.

11. How do pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid differ in blister level and Nikolsky sign?

    Pemphigus vulgaris: intraepidermal blisters (anti-desmoglein), flaccid bullae, positive Nikolsky sign. Bullous pemphigoid: subepidermal blisters (anti-hemidesmosome BP180/230), tense bullae, negative Nikolsky sign.

12. What is the characteristic chancre of primary syphilis and the causative organism?

    A single painless, indurated ulcer (chancre) with a clean base; caused by Treponema pallidum.

13. What are the major skin findings (cutaneous criteria) used in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus?

    Malar (butterfly) rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, and oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers (along with non-cutaneous criteria such as arthritis, serositis, renal, hematologic, and ANA/anti-dsDNA positivity).

14. What are the five components of the APGAR score assessed in the newborn?

    Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration; each scored 0-2 at 1 and 5 minutes.

15. How is neonatal jaundice classified as physiological versus pathological by timing?

    Physiological jaundice appears after 24 hours, peaks at day 3-5, and resolves by 1-2 weeks. Pathological jaundice appears within the first 24 hours, rises rapidly, or persists beyond 2 weeks.

16. What is the definition of low birth weight, very low birth weight, and extremely low birth weight?

    Low birth weight: <2500 g. Very low birth weight: <1500 g. Extremely low birth weight: <1000 g.

17. What is the cause and characteristic chest X-ray finding of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (hyaline membrane disease)?

    Surfactant deficiency in preterm infants; chest X-ray shows a diffuse reticulogranular ('ground-glass') pattern with air bronchograms and low lung volumes.

18. What is the WHO-recommended composition of low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) for treating dehydration?

    Sodium 75 mmol/L, glucose 75 mmol/L, potassium 20 mmol/L, citrate 10 mmol/L, chloride 65 mmol/L, with a total osmolarity of 245 mOsm/L.

19. What clinical signs distinguish marasmus from kwashiorkor in severe acute malnutrition?

    Marasmus: severe wasting, no edema, 'old man' facies (energy deficiency). Kwashiorkor: bilateral pitting edema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, relatively preserved subcutaneous fat (protein deficiency with edema).

20. What are the deficiency diseases caused by lack of vitamin A, vitamin D, vitamin C, and niacin (B3)?

    Vitamin A: night blindness/xerophthalmia. Vitamin D: rickets (children)/osteomalacia (adults). Vitamin C: scurvy. Niacin: pellagra (the 3 D's — dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia).

21. At what ages do the anterior and posterior fontanelles normally close?

    The posterior fontanelle closes by about 2 months; the anterior fontanelle closes between 12 and 18 months of age.

22. What are the standard developmental milestones for social smile, sitting without support, and walking independently?

    Social smile: ~2 months. Sitting without support: ~6-8 months. Walking independently: ~12-15 months.

23. What vaccines are given at birth under India's National Immunization Schedule?

    BCG, oral polio vaccine (OPV-0), and hepatitis B (birth dose).

24. What is the classic clinical tetralogy of Fallot, and how does it present?

    Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It is a cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting with hypoxic 'tet spells' relieved by squatting; chest X-ray shows a 'boot-shaped' heart.

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