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INI CET Obstetrics & Gynecology Flashcards

52 question-and-answer cards covering Obstetrics & Gynecology as it is examined in INI CET. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.

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35Syllabus topics
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24 sample cards from the Obstetrics & Gynecology deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

  1. What is the difference between postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis?

    Postpartum 'blues': transient, mild mood lability in the first ~2 weeks, self-limiting. Postpartum depression: persistent depressive symptoms beyond 2 weeks needing treatment (therapy/antidepressants). Postpartum psychosis: a psychiatric emergency with delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized behavior, usually within 2 weeks, requiring urgent admission.

  2. Compare the mechanisms of action of the main hormonal contraceptive methods.

    Combined oral contraceptives (estrogen+progestin): inhibit ovulation by suppressing FSH/LH, thicken cervical mucus, thin endometrium. Progestin-only pills: thicken cervical mucus (variable ovulation suppression). DMPA injection/implant: suppress ovulation. Hormonal IUD (levonorgestrel): thickens mucus, thins endometrium. Copper IUD: copper ions are spermicidal/cytotoxic, preventing fertilization (non-hormonal).

  3. What are the absolute contraindications to combined hormonal contraceptives?

    Per WHO Medical Eligibility Criteria category 4: history of venous thromboembolism, known thrombogenic mutations, migraine with aura, smoker ≥35 years (≥15 cigarettes/day), uncontrolled hypertension, current breast cancer, active liver disease, complicated valvular heart disease, <6 weeks postpartum if breastfeeding, and major surgery with immobilization.

  4. What are the options for emergency contraception and their windows of use?

    Copper IUD: most effective, insert up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg: a progesterone receptor modulator effective up to 120 h (5 days). Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg: effective up to 72 h (declining efficacy). The copper IUD also provides ongoing contraception.

  5. Define abnormal uterine bleeding using the FIGO PALM-COEIN classification.

    PALM (structural causes): Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma (fibroid), Malignancy/hyperplasia. COEIN (non-structural causes): Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not otherwise classified. It standardizes the etiologic classification of abnormal uterine bleeding in non-pregnant reproductive-age women.

  6. Differentiate primary from secondary dysmenorrhea and primary from secondary amenorrhea.

    Primary dysmenorrhea: painful periods without pelvic pathology, due to prostaglandin-mediated uterine contractions. Secondary dysmenorrhea: due to pathology (endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, PID). Primary amenorrhea: no menarche by age 15 (or 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics). Secondary amenorrhea: cessation of periods for ≥3-6 months in a previously menstruating woman.

  7. What is endometriosis, its classic clinical triad, and gold-standard diagnosis?

    Endometriosis = endometrial-like tissue outside the uterine cavity (commonly ovaries forming 'chocolate cysts', pelvic peritoneum, uterosacral ligaments). Classic triad: dysmenorrhea, deep dyspareunia, and chronic pelvic pain; also subfertility. Gold-standard diagnosis is laparoscopy with visualization/biopsy; management includes NSAIDs, hormonal suppression, and surgical excision.

  8. Compare uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) by location and their typical symptoms.

    Submucosal fibroids (project into cavity): heavy menstrual bleeding and subfertility. Intramural fibroids (within myometrium): bulk symptoms and bleeding. Subserosal fibroids (project outward): pressure effects (urinary frequency, bowel symptoms), may be pedunculated and torse. Fibroids are estrogen-dependent, often regress after menopause.

  9. What are the major histological types of ovarian cancer and the most common overall?

    Epithelial tumors are most common (~90%), the leading subtype being high-grade serous carcinoma; others include mucinous, endometrioid, and clear cell. Germ cell tumors (e.g., dysgerminoma, teratoma) occur in younger women; sex cord-stromal tumors (granulosa cell — estrogen; Sertoli-Leydig — androgen) are rarer. Tumor markers: CA-125 (epithelial), AFP/hCG/LDH (germ cell).

  10. What are the gonadotropins and feedback loops of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis?

    Hypothalamic GnRH (pulsatile) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH. FSH drives follicular growth and granulosa cell estrogen production; LH drives theca cell androgen production and triggers ovulation/luteinization. Estrogen exerts negative feedback (low levels) but positive feedback at the mid-cycle peak (LH surge); progesterone and inhibin provide additional negative feedback.

  11. How is the cause of amenorrhea localized using FSH, LH, and prolactin levels?

    High FSH/LH: ovarian (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism) — e.g., premature ovarian insufficiency, Turner syndrome. Low/normal FSH/LH: hypothalamic-pituitary (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) — e.g., stress, weight loss, Kallmann syndrome. High prolactin: prolactinoma/medications suppressing GnRH. Normal levels with absent withdrawal bleed after progestin: consider outflow tract obstruction (e.g., Asherman syndrome).

  12. What is the recommended timing of basic infertility investigations for the couple?

    Define infertility as failure to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse (6 months if age ≥35). Male: semen analysis (volume, count, motility, morphology). Female: confirm ovulation (mid-luteal day-21 progesterone), assess tubal patency (hysterosalpingography or laparoscopy with dye), and ovarian reserve (AMH, antral follicle count, day-3 FSH). Also assess uterine cavity (ultrasound/hysteroscopy).

  13. Define and outline the management of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

    PCOS uses the Rotterdam criteria — 2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (≥12 follicles or volume >10 mL), after excluding mimics. Management: weight loss/lifestyle, combined OCP for cycle/androgen control, metformin for insulin resistance, and letrozole (first-line) or clomiphene for ovulation induction in those seeking pregnancy.

  14. Describe the steps and key drugs of assisted reproductive technology (IVF).

    IVF steps: (1) controlled ovarian stimulation with FSH/hMG plus a GnRH agonist or antagonist to prevent premature LH surge; (2) trigger final maturation with hCG/GnRH agonist; (3) transvaginal oocyte retrieval ~36 h later; (4) fertilization in vitro (or ICSI for male-factor infertility); (5) embryo culture and transfer; (6) luteal progesterone support. A major complication is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).

  15. What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

    OHSS is an iatrogenic complication of ovarian stimulation, mediated by VEGF-driven increased capillary permeability after hCG. Features: enlarged ovaries, ascites, hemoconcentration, third-spacing of fluid, and risk of thromboembolism, renal failure, and pleural effusion in severe cases. Risk factors include PCOS, high estradiol, and high follicle counts; GnRH-antagonist protocols reduce risk.

  16. Compare clomiphene citrate and letrozole for ovulation induction.

    Clomiphene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that blocks hypothalamic estrogen receptors, increasing GnRH/FSH; side effects include anti-estrogenic endometrial/cervical mucus effects and multiple pregnancy. Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that lowers estrogen, raising FSH; it is now first-line in PCOS (higher live-birth rates, less anti-estrogenic effect on endometrium).

  17. Differentiate stress, urge, and mixed urinary incontinence.

    Stress incontinence: leakage on increased intra-abdominal pressure (cough, sneeze) due to urethral sphincter/support weakness; treated with pelvic floor exercises and mid-urethral sling. Urge incontinence (overactive bladder): sudden urgency with leakage from detrusor overactivity; treated with bladder training and antimuscarinics/beta-3 agonists. Mixed incontinence: features of both.

  18. How is pelvic organ prolapse classified by compartment, and what defines uterine procidentia?

    By compartment: anterior (cystocele — bladder), posterior (rectocele — rectum, enterocele — small bowel), and apical (uterine/vault prolapse). Severity is graded by the POP-Q system. Procidentia is complete uterine prolapse with the entire uterus protruding outside the vaginal introitus (stage IV). Management ranges from pelvic floor therapy and pessaries to surgical repair.

  19. Differentiate the common sexually transmitted infections by causative organism and key feature.

    Chlamydia trachomatis (often asymptomatic, leading cause of PID/infertility). Neisseria gonorrhoeae (purulent discharge, PID). Trichomonas vaginalis (frothy yellow-green discharge, 'strawberry cervix'). Treponema pallidum (syphilis — painless chancre). Herpes simplex (painful vesicles/ulcers). HPV (genital warts; oncogenic types 16/18 cause cervical cancer). Bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella — not strictly an STI; clue cells, fishy odor).

  20. What are the hormonal changes and clinical features of menopause, and what defines premature ovarian insufficiency?

    Menopause = 12 consecutive months of amenorrhea (mean age ~51); due to ovarian follicular depletion, estrogen falls and FSH/LH rise markedly. Features: vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes, night sweats), vaginal atrophy/dryness, mood changes, and long-term osteoporosis and cardiovascular risk. Premature ovarian insufficiency is menopause before age 40 with elevated FSH.

  21. What are the indications, benefits, and risks of menopausal hormone therapy (HRT)?

    HRT relieves vasomotor symptoms and urogenital atrophy and protects against osteoporosis. Women with a uterus need estrogen PLUS progestogen (to prevent endometrial hyperplasia/cancer); estrogen-only is for those after hysterectomy. Risks: increased venous thromboembolism and stroke (oral), and a small increased breast cancer risk with combined long-term use; benefits/risks depend on age and time since menopause.

  22. Outline cervical cancer screening, the main risk factor, and the most common histological type.

    Cervical cancer is caused mainly by persistent high-risk HPV infection (types 16 and 18 most common). Screening: HPV DNA testing and/or cervical cytology (Pap smear), with HPV vaccination for primary prevention. The most common histological type is squamous cell carcinoma (from the transformation zone), followed by adenocarcinoma. It spreads by direct local extension and lymphatics.

  23. Differentiate type I and type II endometrial cancer and state the cardinal symptom.

    The cardinal symptom is postmenopausal bleeding (investigate with transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness and endometrial biopsy). Type I (endometrioid, most common): estrogen-dependent, arises from hyperplasia, associated with obesity/unopposed estrogen/PCOS/tamoxifen, better prognosis. Type II (serous/clear cell): non-estrogen-dependent, occurs in older women, p53 mutations, more aggressive with poorer prognosis.

  24. What is gestational trophoblastic disease, and how do complete and partial hydatidiform moles differ?

    GTD is abnormal trophoblast proliferation. Complete mole: 46,XX (entirely paternal, empty ovum fertilized), no fetal tissue, diffuse 'snowstorm' vesicles, very high hCG, higher malignant potential. Partial mole: triploid (69 chromosomes, two sperm), some fetal/embryonic tissue present, lower hCG. Treatment is suction evacuation with serial hCG follow-up to detect persistent trophoblastic disease/choriocarcinoma.

What this deck covers

The Obstetrics & Gynecology deck follows the INI CET Obstetrics & Gynecology syllabus — 10 chapters and 35 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 5.2 cards per chapter.

Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 386 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.

A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.

Obstetrics & Gynecology flashcards FAQ

How many Obstetrics & Gynecology flashcards are in this INI CET deck?

52 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.

Are these INI CET flashcards free?

Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 52-card deck is free inside the Examius app.

What do the Obstetrics & Gynecology cards cover?

They follow the INI CET Obstetrics & Gynecology syllabus — 10 chapters and 35 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.

How should I use these flashcards?

Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.