NEET PG Pathology Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Pathology deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. List ABO blood group antigens and naturally occurring antibodies for each group.

   Group A: A antigen, anti-B antibody. Group B: B antigen, anti-A. Group AB: A+B antigens, no antibody (universal recipient). Group O: no antigen, anti-A+anti-B (universal donor).

2. What is the difference between major and minor crossmatch in transfusion?

   Major crossmatch: donor RBCs vs recipient serum (most important). Minor crossmatch: donor serum vs recipient RBCs (less significant, largely obsolete with component therapy).

3. Differentiate acute hemolytic transfusion reaction from febrile non-hemolytic reaction.

   Acute hemolytic: ABO incompatibility, IgM-mediated intravascular hemolysis, fever, hypotension, hemoglobinuria, DIC. Febrile non-hemolytic: recipient antibodies vs donor leukocyte cytokines, fever/chills only, benign.

4. Which blood products carry the highest risk of bacterial contamination and why?

   Platelet concentrates, because they are stored at room temperature (20-24C) to maintain function, favoring bacterial growth.

5. Describe the morphologic stages of atherosclerosis.

   Fatty streak (lipid-laden macrophages/foam cells) -> fibrous plaque/atheroma (lipid core with fibrous cap, smooth muscle, cholesterol clefts) -> complicated plaque (calcification, ulceration, hemorrhage, thrombosis, aneurysm).

6. What are the major modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?

   Hyperlipidemia (high LDL/low HDL), hypertension, smoking, and diabetes mellitus.

7. Give the time-line of gross and microscopic changes after a myocardial infarction.

   0-4 h: none. 4-12 h: early coagulative necrosis, wavy fibers. 1-3 d: neutrophils. 3-7 d: macrophages, soft yellow center (risk of rupture). 1-2 wk: granulation tissue. >2 mo: dense collagenous scar.

8. List COPD components and contrast emphysema with chronic bronchitis.

   Emphysema: permanent alveolar wall destruction (loss of elastic recoil), 'pink puffer', dyspnea. Chronic bronchitis: productive cough >=3 months/2 yrs, mucus gland hyperplasia (Reid index increased), 'blue bloater'.

9. Differentiate lobar pneumonia from bronchopneumonia.

   Lobar: consolidation of an entire lobe, typically Streptococcus pneumoniae, four stages (congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, resolution). Bronchopneumonia: patchy consolidation around bronchi, often elderly/debilitated, mixed organisms.

10. Compare the main types of lung carcinoma: small cell vs non-small cell features.

    Small cell (SCLC): central, neuroendocrine, paraneoplastic (ADH/ACTH), aggressive, not surgical. NSCLC: adenocarcinoma (peripheral, non-smokers, EGFR/ALK), squamous cell (central, hypercalcemia/PTHrP), large cell (anaplastic).

11. Distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn disease on key pathology.

    UC: continuous, rectum-to-proximal, mucosa/submucosa only, crypt abscesses, pseudopolyps, no granulomas. Crohn: skip lesions, mouth-to-anus, transmural, granulomas, fistulae, 'cobblestone' mucosa, fat wrapping.

12. List the histologic types of cirrhosis end-stage features and a hepatocellular carcinoma marker.

    Cirrhosis: diffuse bridging fibrosis with regenerative nodules disrupting architecture (micronodular/macronodular). Hepatocellular carcinoma tumor marker: alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).

13. Match viral hepatitis: which are RNA, which DNA, and routes of transmission.

    HAV (RNA, fecal-oral), HBV (DNA, parenteral/sexual/vertical), HCV (RNA, parenteral), HDV (RNA, needs HBV), HEV (RNA, fecal-oral, severe in pregnancy).

14. Differentiate nephritic from nephrotic syndrome.

    Nephritic: hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, mild proteinuria, oliguria, azotemia (inflammatory GN). Nephrotic: heavy proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria.

15. Match glomerular diseases: minimal change, membranous, post-strep, IgA nephropathy.

    Minimal change: effacement of foot processes (children, nephrotic). Membranous: subepithelial 'spike and dome' deposits (adult nephrotic). Post-strep: subepithelial humps, low C3 (nephritic). IgA (Berger): mesangial IgA, recurrent hematuria post-infection.

16. What is the most common renal stone type and its predisposing condition?

    Calcium oxalate stones (~75-80%); associated with hypercalciuria/hypercalcemia. Radiopaque on X-ray.

17. Name the classic histology and a key feature of clear cell renal cell carcinoma.

    Clear cytoplasm (lipid/glycogen) cells in nests; arises from proximal tubule; associated with VHL gene; tends to invade renal vein; paraneoplastic polycythemia (EPO).

18. Compare type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus pathogenesis.

    Type 1: autoimmune T-cell destruction of beta cells -> absolute insulin deficiency, HLA-DR3/DR4, autoantibodies, ketosis-prone. Type 2: insulin resistance + relative deficiency, obesity-related, amyloid in islets, not autoimmune.

19. Describe papillary thyroid carcinoma's diagnostic nuclear features.

    'Orphan Annie eye' nuclei (optically clear/empty), nuclear grooves, intranuclear inclusions, and psammoma bodies. Best prognosis; spreads via lymphatics.

20. Differentiate fibroadenoma from invasive ductal carcinoma of breast.

    Fibroadenoma: benign, young women, well-circumscribed mobile mass, proliferation of stroma + glands. Invasive ductal carcinoma: malignant, hard fixed mass, desmoplastic stroma, infiltrating duct cells; most common breast cancer.

21. What receptors are tested in breast cancer and why?

    Estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and HER2/neu. They guide therapy (hormonal therapy for ER+, trastuzumab for HER2+) and prognosis; triple-negative has worst prognosis.

22. Match CNS tumors: glioblastoma, meningioma, medulloblastoma to feature.

    Glioblastoma multiforme: pseudopalisading necrosis + microvascular proliferation, GFAP+, adults, poor prognosis. Meningioma: psammoma bodies, whorls, dural-based, women. Medulloblastoma: cerebellum, children, small blue cells, Homer-Wright rosettes.

23. Distinguish osteosarcoma from Ewing sarcoma on age, site and genetics.

    Osteosarcoma: adolescents, metaphysis of long bones (knee), Codman triangle/sunburst, malignant osteoid, RB/p53 mutation. Ewing sarcoma: children, diaphysis, 'onion-skin' periosteum, small round blue cells, t(11;22) EWS-FLI1, CD99+.

24. What is the classic radiographic and histologic feature of giant cell tumor of bone?

    'Soap-bubble' lytic lesion at the epiphysis of long bones (around the knee) in young adults; histology shows multinucleated osteoclast-type giant cells in a background of mononuclear stromal cells.

What this deck covers

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