NEET PG Medicine And Allied Clinical Sciences Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Medicine And Allied Clinical Sciences deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is the most common glomerulonephritis worldwide, and its classic presentation?

   IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease); presents with episodic gross hematuria concurrent with (synpharyngitic) upper respiratory infection.

2. What are the most common indications for emergency dialysis (mnemonic AEIOU)?

   Acidosis (refractory metabolic), Electrolyte imbalance (refractory hyperkalemia), Intoxication (dialyzable toxins), Overload (refractory fluid overload/pulmonary edema), Uremia (pericarditis, encephalopathy).

3. What is the time window and key contraindication consideration for IV thrombolysis (alteplase) in acute ischemic stroke?

   Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset; absolute exclusion of intracranial hemorrhage on imaging (CT) and other bleeding risks before administration.

4. How do you differentiate an upper motor neuron from a lower motor neuron lesion?

   UMN: spasticity, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar (Babinski +), no significant atrophy. LMN: flaccidity, hyporeflexia, fasciculations, marked atrophy.

5. What is the first-line drug for focal seizures and for generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

   Focal: carbamazepine, lamotrigine, or levetiracetam. Generalized tonic-clonic: sodium valproate (levetiracetam/lamotrigine alternatives).

6. What is the definition of status epilepticus and its first-line emergency treatment?

   Continuous seizure >=5 minutes or recurrent seizures without recovery of consciousness; first-line is IV benzodiazepine (lorazepam/diazepam).

7. What is the classic clinical triad of Parkinson's disease, and the underlying neuropathology?

   Resting tremor, rigidity (cogwheel), and bradykinesia (with postural instability); due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta with Lewy bodies.

8. What is the most effective drug for symptomatic Parkinson's disease?

   Levodopa combined with a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa or benserazide).

9. Which movement disorder is autosomal dominant with chorea and caudate atrophy, caused by CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion?

   Huntington's disease (HTT gene on chromosome 4); shows anticipation with expanded CAG repeats.

10. What are the WHO warning signs that classify dengue as 'dengue with warning signs'?

    Abdominal pain/tenderness, persistent vomiting, clinical fluid accumulation (ascites/pleural effusion), mucosal bleeding, lethargy/restlessness, liver enlargement >2 cm, and rising hematocrit with rapid platelet drop.

11. Which Plasmodium species causes the most severe (potentially fatal) malaria, and what is first-line treatment for severe malaria?

    Plasmodium falciparum; first-line for severe malaria is IV/IM artesunate.

12. What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for enteric (typhoid) fever in the first week of illness, and the drug of choice?

    Blood culture (most sensitive in week 1); treatment with ceftriaxone or azithromycin (fluoroquinolone where sensitive).

13. What rapid bedside sign suggests leptospirosis (Weil's disease) and what is its treatment?

    Fever with conjunctival suffusion, jaundice, and acute kidney injury (often with myalgia of calves); treated with doxycycline (mild) or IV penicillin/ceftriaxone (severe).

14. At what age do infants typically achieve social smile, head holding, sitting without support, and walking independently?

    Social smile ~2 months, head holding ~3-4 months, sitting without support ~6-8 months, and walking independently ~12-15 months.

15. According to India's National Immunization Schedule, which vaccines are given at birth?

    BCG, OPV-0 (zero dose), and Hepatitis B birth dose.

16. What are the five components scored in the APGAR score?

    Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration; each scored 0-2, assessed at 1 and 5 minutes.

17. What distinguishes physiological from pathological neonatal jaundice?

    Physiological: appears after 24 hours, peaks day 3-5, unconjugated, resolves by ~1-2 weeks. Pathological: appears within first 24 hours, rises rapidly (>5 mg/dL/day), conjugated, or persists beyond 2 weeks.

18. How do marasmus and kwashiorkor differ clinically?

    Marasmus: severe wasting, no edema, 'old man' facies, due to overall calorie deficiency. Kwashiorkor: edema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, hypoalbuminemia, due to protein deficiency with relatively preserved calories.

19. Match these vitamin deficiencies to their classic diseases: vitamin A, vitamin C, vitamin D, niacin (B3), thiamine (B1).

    Vitamin A - night blindness/xerophthalmia; vitamin C - scurvy; vitamin D - rickets/osteomalacia; niacin - pellagra (3 D's: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia); thiamine - beriberi/Wernicke encephalopathy.

20. How do you classify dehydration severity in a child with acute diarrhea per WHO?

    No dehydration (alert, normal eyes, drinks normally), some dehydration (restless/irritable, sunken eyes, thirsty, skin pinch slow), and severe dehydration (lethargic/unconscious, very sunken eyes, unable to drink, skin pinch very slow).

21. What is the composition rationale of WHO low-osmolarity ORS and its osmolarity?

    Reduced osmolarity (~245 mOsm/L) with sodium 75, glucose 75 mmol/L; lower osmolarity reduces stool output, vomiting, and need for IV fluids by optimizing sodium-glucose co-transport.

22. What are the typical causative organisms of impetigo, and the distinguishing feature of bullous impetigo?

    Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes; non-bullous shows honey-colored crusts, while bullous impetigo (caused by S. aureus exfoliative toxin) shows flaccid bullae.

23. How do pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid differ in blister level, Nikolsky sign, and target antigen?

    Pemphigus vulgaris: intraepidermal (suprabasal) flaccid bullae, Nikolsky positive, anti-desmoglein 3/1. Bullous pemphigoid: subepidermal tense bullae, Nikolsky negative, anti-BP180/BP230 (hemidesmosome).

24. What is the minimum symptom duration to diagnose a major depressive episode versus schizophrenia, and name a first-line drug class for each.

    Major depression: >=2 weeks of symptoms, treated first-line with SSRIs. Schizophrenia: >=6 months (with >=1 month active phase per DSM-5), treated with antipsychotics (atypicals like risperidone/olanzapine first-line).

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