NEET PG ENT Flashcards

24 sample cards from the ENT deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is the most common organism in chronic invasive fungal sinusitis (mucormycosis), and the key risk factor?

   Mucor/Rhizopus (Mucorales). Key risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (ketoacidosis) or immunosuppression; presents with black necrotic eschar and rapid progression.

2. What is Samter's triad (aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease)?

   Nasal polyps, asthma, and aspirin (NSAID) sensitivity/intolerance.

3. In children, bilateral nasal polyps should raise suspicion for which underlying disease?

   Cystic fibrosis. (Antrochoanal polyp is the most common single/unilateral polyp in children.)

4. What is a juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, who is affected, and a key management caveat?

   A benign but locally aggressive, highly vascular tumor of the nasopharynx in adolescent males. Presents with recurrent epistaxis and nasal obstruction; biopsy is contraindicated due to bleeding risk — diagnose by imaging.

5. What are the components of laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) symptoms, and how do they differ from GERD?

   LPR causes hoarseness, throat clearing, globus sensation, chronic cough, and posterior laryngitis. Unlike GERD, heartburn is often ABSENT and symptoms are predominantly upright/extraesophageal.

6. What is the most common cause of hoarseness in a chronic smoker, and the most important diagnosis to exclude?

   Reinke's edema (smoker's polyps) is common, but laryngeal carcinoma must be excluded — any hoarseness lasting >2-3 weeks requires laryngoscopic evaluation.

7. What are vocal cord nodules ('singer's nodules'), where are they located, and the first-line treatment?

   Bilateral, symmetric callus-like lesions at the junction of the anterior and middle thirds of the vocal cords due to voice overuse. First-line treatment is voice therapy/rest.

8. Which nerve injury causes vocal cord paralysis, and what is the resting position of the cord in unilateral palsy?

   Recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus). In unilateral paralysis the cord lies in the paramedian position; bilateral abductor palsy causes stridor/airway obstruction.

9. What is the most common cause of stridor in a neonate/infant?

   Laryngomalacia — floppy supraglottic structures causing inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine/crying and usually resolves by 18-24 months.

10. Differentiate the stridor of croup, epiglottitis, and a foreign body.

    Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis): barking cough, inspiratory stridor, viral (parainfluenza). Epiglottitis: rapid toxic onset, drooling, tripod posture, no cough (H. influenzae type b). Foreign body: sudden onset choking, often unilateral wheeze.

11. What is the most common pediatric airway papilloma cause, and the virus involved?

    Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11; presents with hoarseness and stridor.

12. What is the most common cause of acute epiglottitis and the key radiographic sign?

    Historically Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). Lateral neck X-ray shows the 'thumb sign' (swollen epiglottis). Airway management takes priority over examination.

13. What is the classification of neck masses by the '80% rule' regarding location and cause?

    Midline masses (e.g., thyroglossal cyst) tend to be congenital/benign; lateral neck masses in adults >40 are malignant (often metastatic SCC) until proven otherwise; in children most are inflammatory.

14. What is a thyroglossal duct cyst, and what is its characteristic clinical sign?

    A midline neck cyst from a persistent thyroglossal duct. It moves upward with tongue protrusion and swallowing. Treated by Sistrunk operation (excision with central hyoid body).

15. What is a branchial cleft cyst, where is it located, and which is most common?

    A lateral neck cyst at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. The second branchial cleft cyst is the most common type.

16. What is the most important complication to monitor after thyroidectomy, and the nerves at risk?

    Hypocalcemia (from inadvertent parathyroid removal/injury) and airway-threatening hematoma. Nerves at risk: recurrent laryngeal nerve (voice) and external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (pitch).

17. What sign indicates hypocalcemia (tetany) after parathyroid or thyroid surgery?

    Chvostek's sign (facial twitch on tapping the facial nerve) and Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm with BP cuff inflation).

18. What is the most common histological type of head and neck cancer, and the major risk factors?

    Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Major risk factors: tobacco and alcohol (synergistic); HPV-16 for oropharyngeal cancers; betel nut/areca for oral cancer.

19. What is the most common malignant tumor of the larynx, and which subsite has the best prognosis due to poor lymphatic drainage?

    Squamous cell carcinoma. The glottic (true vocal cord) subsite has the best prognosis because it has minimal lymphatic drainage and presents early with hoarseness.

20. What is tympanometry, and what does a Type B (flat) tracing indicate?

    Tympanometry measures middle ear compliance/pressure. A Type B flat tracing indicates middle ear effusion or tympanic membrane perforation (a normal volume B = effusion; large volume B = perforation).

21. In audiological evaluation, what does the speech reception threshold (SRT) and what does pure tone average (PTA) typically include?

    PTA is the average of air-conduction thresholds at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz. SRT (lowest level at which 50% of spondee words are repeated) should correlate within ~6-10 dB of the PTA.

22. What is the head impulse test (HIT) used to evaluate, and what indicates a peripheral lesion?

    It tests the vestibulo-ocular reflex. A corrective catch-up saccade after rapid head rotation (abnormal/positive HIT) indicates a peripheral vestibular lesion; a normal HIT in acute vertigo suggests a central cause.

23. Which immunodeficiency classically presents with recurrent sinopulmonary and ENT infections, and what is the most common primary antibody deficiency?

    Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary immunodeficiency, presenting with recurrent sinopulmonary/ENT infections (and risk of anaphylaxis to blood products). Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) also causes recurrent sinopulmonary infections.

24. In facial trauma, what is the LeFort classification, and what defines a LeFort II fracture?

    LeFort fractures classify midface fractures: I = horizontal maxilla (floating palate); II = pyramidal (involving nasal bridge, infraorbital rims, maxilla); III = craniofacial disjunction (separating face from skull base).

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