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NEET PG Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine Flashcards
52 question-and-answer cards covering Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine as it is examined in NEET PG. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
Define R0 (basic reproduction number).
R0 is the average number of secondary cases produced by one infected individual in a fully susceptible population. R0 > 1 means the epidemic grows; R0 < 1 means it declines.
What is the difference between elimination and eradication of a disease?
Elimination = reduction of disease to zero incidence in a defined geographic area (control measures still needed). Eradication = permanent worldwide reduction to zero incidence with no further control needed (e.g., smallpox).
List the modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Hypertension, smoking/tobacco, dyslipidemia, diabetes, obesity, physical inactivity, unhealthy diet, and harmful alcohol use.
What does the NPCDCS program target and what is its screening approach?
NPCDCS = National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke. Population-based screening of those over 30 years for hypertension, diabetes, and common cancers (oral, breast, cervical).
What is Body Mass Index (BMI) and the WHO classification cut-offs for Asians?
BMI = weight(kg) / height(m)². WHO Asian cut-offs: underweight <18.5, normal 18.5-22.9, overweight 23-24.9, obese ≥25.
What are the deficiency diseases of Vitamin A, Vitamin D, and Vitamin B1?
Vitamin A: night blindness/xerophthalmia. Vitamin D: rickets (children)/osteomalacia (adults). Vitamin B1 (thiamine): beriberi (wet and dry) and Wernicke-Korsakoff.
What is the standard for safe drinking water - permissible level of residual chlorine?
Free residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/L after 1 hour of contact time ensures adequate disinfection of drinking water.
Name the occupational lung diseases caused by silica, coal, and asbestos.
Silica → silicosis; Coal dust → coal worker's pneumoconiosis (anthracosis); Asbestos → asbestosis (and mesothelioma/lung cancer).
What are the components of the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)?
JSY is a conditional cash transfer scheme promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women, with cash assistance to the mother and ASHA, to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality.
Define Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and its current goal under SDG.
MMR = (maternal deaths / live births) x 100,000. SDG target is to reduce global MMR to less than 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030.
What are the eligible criteria and recommended spacing methods under the National Family Welfare Programme?
Spacing methods include condoms, OCPs, IUCD (Cu-T), and injectable contraceptives (Antara). Recommended birth spacing is at least 3 years between children; first child after 2 years of marriage.
What are the WHO-recommended number of antenatal care (ANC) visits?
WHO 2016 recommends a minimum of 8 ANC contacts. India's earlier schedule recommended at least 4 ANC visits; PMSMA provides assured ANC on the 9th of each month.
What is the difference between a medicolegal autopsy and a clinical/pathological autopsy?
Medicolegal (forensic) autopsy is ordered by legal authority to establish cause/manner of death in suspicious/unnatural deaths; no consent of relatives needed. Clinical autopsy requires relatives' consent and is done to study disease/confirm diagnosis.
List the primary parameters used for identification of a person in forensic medicine.
Race, religion, sex, age, stature, complexion, and features; plus scars, tattoos, deformities, fingerprints, dental data (odontology), and DNA fingerprinting (the most reliable).
What is the most reliable method of personal identification and which tissues are commonly used?
DNA fingerprinting (DNA profiling) is most reliable. Common sources: blood, semen, hair root, bone, teeth, and any nucleated cell. Identical twins are an exception (same DNA).
Define rigor mortis and state its typical time course in a temperate climate.
Rigor mortis = post-mortem stiffening of muscles due to depletion of ATP and accumulation of lactic acid. It begins 1-2 hrs after death, completes in ~12 hrs, persists ~12 hrs, and passes off in ~12 hrs (in India, faster).
What is post-mortem hypostasis (livor mortis) and its medicolegal importance?
Lividity is bluish-purple discoloration of dependent parts due to settling of blood after death. It indicates time since death, position of body, and sometimes cause of death (e.g., cherry-red in CO poisoning).
Differentiate an incised wound from a lacerated wound.
Incised wound: clean-cut, regular margins, length > depth, caused by sharp-edged weapon, no tissue bridging. Lacerated wound: irregular ragged margins, tissue bridging present, caused by blunt force.
What are the cardinal signs distinguishing antemortem from postmortem wounds?
Antemortem wounds show signs of vital reaction: bleeding (gaping), inflammation/redness, clot formation, swelling, and healing/repair. Postmortem wounds lack these vital reactions.
List the classical signs of asphyxia found at autopsy.
Cyanosis, congestion, petechial (Tardieu) hemorrhages, fluidity of blood, and engorgement of the right side of the heart.
Differentiate antemortem from postmortem hanging based on ligature mark and findings.
Antemortem hanging: ligature mark is oblique, non-continuous, high up the neck above the thyroid, with vital reaction (ecchymosis, salivary dribbling on the side of knot). Postmortem hanging lacks vital reaction.
What is the legal definition of consent age and what makes consent valid in medical practice in India?
Valid consent requires the person to be ≥18 years (for examination/treatment giving consent), of sound mind, and given freely after understanding the nature/consequences (informed consent). For surgery/anesthesia, written informed consent is required.
What is the antidote for organophosphate (OP) poisoning and its mechanism?
Atropine (blocks muscarinic effects) and pralidoxime/2-PAM (reactivates acetylcholinesterase). OP poisoning causes inhibition of acetylcholinesterase leading to cholinergic crisis (DUMBELS).
What is the specific antidote for paracetamol (acetaminophen) poisoning?
N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes glutathione stores to detoxify the toxic metabolite NAPQI, preventing hepatic necrosis. Most effective within 8-10 hours of ingestion.
What this deck covers
This deck covers the Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine portion of the NEET PG syllabus in question-and-answer form. Browse the full NEET PG syllabus to see how it fits with the rest.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 180 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine flashcards FAQ
How many Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine flashcards are in this NEET PG deck?
52 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these NEET PG flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 52-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine cards cover?
They follow the Community Medicine And Forensic Medicine portion of the NEET PG syllabus, in question-and-answer form.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.