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FMGE Paediatrics Flashcards
50 question-and-answer cards covering Paediatrics as it is examined in FMGE. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the Paediatrics deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
What clinical signs are used to assess dehydration severity in a child with diarrhea (WHO classification)?
General condition, sunken eyes, ability to drink, and skin pinch (turgor); used to classify as no dehydration, some dehydration, or severe dehydration.
What is the composition basis and management role of WHO low-osmolarity ORS in diarrheal disease?
Low-osmolarity ORS (245 mOsm/L) with reduced sodium and glucose is the mainstay of rehydration; oral zinc supplementation for 10-14 days reduces duration and severity.
What are the most common causes of acute bacterial meningitis in children beyond the neonatal period?
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis (Haemophilus influenzae type b now rare due to vaccination).
What CSF findings differentiate bacterial from viral meningitis?
Bacterial: high neutrophils, high protein, low glucose, turbid. Viral: lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal/mildly raised protein, normal glucose, clear.
List the vaccines and diseases prevented in the WHO/Indian primary immunization schedule given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks (pentavalent).
Pentavalent vaccine prevents Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Haemophilus influenzae type b; given with OPV/IPV and rotavirus/PCV.
What are the classic clinical features (the 3 C's) of measles, and what pathognomonic enanthem precedes the rash?
Cough, Coryza, and Conjunctivitis; Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa) are pathognomonic and precede the maculopapular rash.
What is the chronic asthma stepwise pharmacologic cornerstone for persistent asthma in children?
Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the cornerstone controller; short-acting beta-2 agonists (SABA) are used as reliever therapy.
What is the first-line treatment for an acute asthma exacerbation in a child?
Inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol), supplemental oxygen, and systemic corticosteroids; add ipratropium and consider IV magnesium sulphate in severe attacks.
What is the management of bronchiolitis in infants?
Mainly supportive: oxygen for hypoxia, hydration, and nasal suctioning; bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics are not routinely beneficial.
What is the inheritance and underlying defect of cystic fibrosis?
Autosomal recessive defect in the CFTR chloride channel gene (most commonly delta-F508), causing thick secretions in lungs, pancreas, and other exocrine organs.
What is the diagnostic test of choice for cystic fibrosis and its diagnostic threshold?
The sweat chloride test; a sweat chloride concentration >60 mmol/L is diagnostic.
What is the typical clinical presentation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in infants and a red-flag distinguishing it from physiologic reflux?
GERD presents with regurgitation plus poor weight gain, feeding refusal, irritability, or respiratory symptoms; physiologic reflux is the 'happy spitter' with normal growth. Red flags include bilious vomiting, hematemesis, and failure to thrive.
How do you differentiate marasmus from kwashiorkor?
Marasmus: severe wasting, marked weight loss, no edema (energy deficiency). Kwashiorkor: edema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, relatively preserved subcutaneous fat (protein deficiency).
By WHO criteria, what defines severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children 6-59 months?
Weight-for-height/length < -3 SD, OR mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) <11.5 cm, OR presence of bilateral pitting edema.
What is the most common congenital heart defect overall, and what murmur is associated with it?
Ventricular septal defect (VSD); produces a harsh holosystolic (pansystolic) murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border.
Which acyanotic shunt lesion classically produces a wide, fixed split-second heart sound?
Atrial septal defect (ASD).
What is the characteristic murmur of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), and which drug is used to close it in preterm infants?
A continuous 'machinery' murmur at the left infraclavicular area; indomethacin or ibuprofen (prostaglandin inhibitors) promote closure. Prostaglandin E1 keeps it open in duct-dependent lesions.
What are the four anatomical components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Pulmonary stenosis (RV outflow obstruction), right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, and a ventricular septal defect.
What is the characteristic chest X-ray finding in Tetralogy of Fallot, and how are hypercyanotic 'tet spells' managed?
Boot-shaped heart (coeur en sabot); tet spells are managed with knee-chest position, oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, and beta-blockers.
What are the classic clinical findings of coarctation of the aorta?
Upper limb hypertension with weak/delayed femoral pulses (radio-femoral delay) and a brachiofemoral lag; older children may show rib notching on X-ray.
What defines a simple febrile seizure?
A generalized seizure lasting <15 minutes, occurring once in 24 hours, in a child aged 6 months-5 years with fever and no CNS infection or prior afebrile seizures.
How does a complex febrile seizure differ from a simple one, and how does it affect epilepsy risk?
Complex febrile seizures are focal, prolonged (>15 minutes), or recurrent within 24 hours; they carry a higher risk of subsequent epilepsy than simple febrile seizures.
What are the components and treatment principle of the allergic march, and what is the first-line treatment for atopic dermatitis (eczema)?
The atopic march progresses from atopic dermatitis to food allergy, allergic rhinitis, and asthma. First-line eczema treatment is emollients/moisturizers plus topical corticosteroids; avoid triggers.
What is the immediate first-line drug and route for anaphylaxis in a child, and what is the pediatric dose?
Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) into the anterolateral thigh, 0.01 mg/kg of 1:1000 solution (max 0.5 mg), repeated every 5-15 minutes as needed; supported by oxygen, IV fluids, antihistamines, and steroids.
What this deck covers
The Paediatrics deck follows the FMGE Paediatrics syllabus — 10 chapters and 38 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 5.0 cards per chapter.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 150 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
Paediatrics flashcards FAQ
How many Paediatrics flashcards are in this FMGE deck?
50 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these FMGE flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 50-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the Paediatrics cards cover?
They follow the FMGE Paediatrics syllabus — 10 chapters and 38 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.