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FMGE ENT Flashcards
50 question-and-answer cards covering ENT as it is examined in FMGE. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the ENT deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
What are the most common bacterial causes of acute bacterial sinusitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis (same as acute otitis media).
What features suggest bacterial rather than viral acute sinusitis?
Symptoms persisting beyond 10 days, severe symptoms (high fever, purulent discharge, facial pain) for 3-4 days, or 'double worsening' (initial improvement followed by deterioration).
Where do most cases of epistaxis arise anatomically?
Most (about 90%) are anterior, arising from Little's area (Kiesselbach's plexus) on the anterior nasal septum. Posterior bleeds (often from the sphenopalatine artery) are less common but more severe.
What is the initial management of acute anterior epistaxis?
Sit forward, pinch the soft (cartilaginous) part of the nose firmly for 10-15 minutes, breathe through the mouth. If it fails: topical vasoconstrictor, chemical/electrical cautery of the bleeding point, then anterior nasal packing.
What is laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) and how does it differ from GERD?
Retrograde flow of gastric contents to the larynx/pharynx causing hoarseness, throat clearing, globus, and chronic cough. Unlike GERD, heartburn is often absent ('silent reflux'). Managed with PPIs, dietary/lifestyle changes.
What is the most common cause of acute laryngitis and its hallmark symptom?
Viral upper respiratory infection. Hallmark is hoarseness/dysphonia, usually self-limiting; voice rest is advised.
What are vocal cord (vocal fold) nodules and who typically gets them?
Bilateral, symmetric benign callus-like lesions at the junction of anterior and middle thirds of the vocal folds, caused by vocal overuse/abuse ('singer's/screamer's nodules'). Treated primarily with voice therapy.
What is the significance of new-onset hoarseness lasting more than 2-3 weeks in a smoker?
It is a red flag for laryngeal carcinoma and warrants urgent laryngoscopy to rule out malignancy.
What is stridor and what does inspiratory vs expiratory stridor localize to?
A harsh, high-pitched sound from turbulent airflow through a narrowed airway. Inspiratory stridor suggests extrathoracic/supraglottic-glottic obstruction; expiratory suggests intrathoracic/lower airway; biphasic suggests subglottic/tracheal obstruction.
What is the most common cause of chronic stridor in infants?
Laryngomalacia - collapse of soft supraglottic structures on inspiration, causing inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine/feeding and usually resolves by 12-18 months.
What is acute epiglottitis, its classic causative organism, and a key management caution?
Life-threatening supraglottic inflammation, classically from Haemophilus influenzae type B. Presents with the '4 Ds' (drooling, dysphagia, dysphonia, distress) and tripod posture. Do NOT examine the throat with a tongue depressor; secure the airway first.
What is croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), its cause, and hallmark features?
Viral (most often parainfluenza) subglottic inflammation in young children, causing a barking/seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness. X-ray shows the 'steeple sign'. Treated with corticosteroids and nebulized adrenaline if severe.
What is the most common cause of an anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing and tongue protrusion?
A thyroglossal duct cyst - moves upward with tongue protrusion and swallowing because of its connection to the foramen cecum at the tongue base.
Give a differential for a lateral neck mass in an adult.
Reactive/infective lymphadenopathy, metastatic lymph node (especially squamous cell carcinoma in older smokers), lymphoma, branchial cleft cyst (younger patients), and salivary gland tumors.
What is the most common type of head and neck cancer and its major risk factors?
Squamous cell carcinoma. Major risk factors are tobacco and alcohol (synergistic); HPV (type 16) is increasingly important, especially for oropharyngeal cancer and carries a better prognosis.
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer and how does it typically spread?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma (most common, ~80%). It spreads via lymphatics to cervical nodes and generally has an excellent prognosis.
What two important structures are at risk during thyroid surgery, and what does injury to each cause?
The recurrent laryngeal nerve (injury causes hoarseness/vocal fold paralysis; bilateral injury can cause airway obstruction) and the parathyroid glands (injury/removal causes hypocalcemia).
What is the classic biochemistry of primary hyperparathyroidism, and what is the usual cause?
High serum calcium with high (or inappropriately normal) PTH and low phosphate. Usually caused by a single parathyroid adenoma; treated surgically by parathyroidectomy.
What are the early symptoms of postoperative hypocalcemia after thyroid/parathyroid surgery, and what are the classic clinical signs?
Perioral and digital paresthesia, muscle cramps, and tetany. Classic signs: Chvostek's sign (facial twitch on tapping the facial nerve) and Trousseau's sign (carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation).
What is the structured 'ABCDE' priority in airway management of a critically ill patient?
Airway (with cervical spine control), Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure - assessed and treated in that order, with the airway always addressed first.
What is the definition and components of a primary immunodeficiency that should be suspected with recurrent ENT infections?
An inherited defect in the immune system. Suspect it with recurrent/severe/persistent ENT and sinopulmonary infections (e.g., recurrent otitis media/sinusitis), failure to thrive, or unusual organisms. Examples include selective IgA deficiency and common variable immunodeficiency.
In nasal/midface (facial) trauma, what must be excluded after nasal injury, and why is it urgent?
A septal hematoma - a collection of blood between the septal cartilage and perichondrium. It must be drained urgently because untreated it causes cartilage necrosis (avascular) leading to a saddle-nose deformity or abscess.
What is a Le Fort fracture classification of the midface?
Le Fort I: horizontal fracture above the maxillary teeth (floating palate). Le Fort II: pyramidal fracture through the nasal bridge and maxilla (floating maxilla). Le Fort III: craniofacial disjunction separating the midface from the skull base.
What is a 'CSF rhinorrhea' sign and how can it be confirmed after head/facial trauma?
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose due to a skull base (cribriform plate) fracture. Confirmed by testing the fluid for beta-2 transferrin (specific for CSF), or the 'halo/ring sign' on tissue.
What this deck covers
The ENT deck follows the FMGE ENT syllabus — 10 chapters and 32 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 5.0 cards per chapter.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 192 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
ENT flashcards FAQ
How many ENT flashcards are in this FMGE deck?
50 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these FMGE flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 50-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the ENT cards cover?
They follow the FMGE ENT syllabus — 10 chapters and 32 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.