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FMGE Dermatology Flashcards
51 question-and-answer cards covering Dermatology as it is examined in FMGE. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.
24 sample cards from the Dermatology deck
Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.
Which virus causes molluscum contagiosum and what is its characteristic lesion?
A poxvirus; lesions are dome-shaped, pearly, umbilicated (central dimple) papules; histology shows Henderson-Paterson (molluscum) bodies.
What is the difference between HSV-1 and HSV-2 typical sites and reactivation patterns?
HSV-1 classically causes orolabial herpes (cold sores) and latency in the trigeminal ganglion; HSV-2 causes genital herpes with latency in sacral ganglia. Both can reactivate with stress, illness, UV, or immunosuppression.
What rash distribution characterizes herpes zoster (shingles)?
Painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in a unilateral dermatomal distribution (does not cross the midline), from reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in a dorsal root ganglion.
What organism causes tinea (dermatophytosis) and which test confirms it?
Dermatophytes (Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton); confirmed by KOH (potassium hydroxide) wet mount showing septate branching hyphae, plus fungal culture.
How does tinea versicolor present, what causes it, and what is its KOH finding?
Caused by Malassezia (Pityrosporum); presents as hypo- or hyperpigmented scaly macules on the trunk; KOH shows 'spaghetti and meatballs' (hyphae and spores).
What are the cutaneous hallmarks of acute systemic lupus erythematosus?
A photosensitive malar ('butterfly') rash sparing the nasolabial folds, discoid lesions, photosensitivity, and oral ulcers; ANA and anti-dsDNA/anti-Smith antibodies are markers.
Differentiate discoid lupus from systemic lupus skin involvement.
Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) is chronic cutaneous lupus with scarring, atrophic, hyperpigmented plaques and follicular plugging, often without systemic disease; SLE malar rash is non-scarring.
What are the characteristic cutaneous signs of dermatomyositis?
Heliotrope rash (violaceous periorbital edema/discoloration) and Gottron's papules (violaceous papules over knuckles/MCP and PIP joints), plus shawl sign and proximal muscle weakness.
Which autoantibody is associated with dermatomyositis and increased malignancy risk?
Anti-Jo-1 (associated with antisynthetase syndrome/ILD); anti-TIF1-gamma and anti-NXP2 are associated with malignancy. Dermatomyositis warrants age-appropriate cancer screening.
Differentiate limited from diffuse systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).
Limited cutaneous scleroderma = CREST syndrome (Calcinosis, Raynaud's, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia), anti-centromere antibody; diffuse = widespread skin and early internal organ involvement, anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) antibody.
What is the pathophysiology of vitiligo?
Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes producing well-demarcated, depigmented (chalk-white) macules/patches; associated with other autoimmune disease (thyroid). Wood's lamp accentuates lesions.
What is melasma and what are its main triggers?
Melasma is acquired symmetric hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed facial skin (cheeks, forehead, upper lip); triggers include UV exposure, pregnancy ('chloasma'/mask of pregnancy), and oral contraceptives/hormones.
What causes post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH) and who is most affected?
PIH results from increased melanin production/deposition following cutaneous inflammation or injury (acne, eczema, trauma); it is more common and persistent in darker skin types (Fitzpatrick IV-VI).
What is alopecia areata and its characteristic clinical/dermoscopic finding?
Autoimmune non-scarring hair loss producing smooth, round patches; characteristic 'exclamation mark' hairs at the margin; alopecia totalis (whole scalp) and universalis (whole body) are severe forms.
Describe the pattern and key mediator of androgenetic alopecia.
Genetically determined, androgen (dihydrotestosterone/DHT)-driven hair miniaturization; men: bitemporal recession and vertex thinning (Norwood-Hamilton); women: diffuse central thinning sparing frontal hairline (Ludwig). Treated with topical minoxidil and oral finasteride (5-alpha-reductase inhibitor).
What is onychomycosis, its most common cause, and first-line systemic treatment?
Fungal infection of the nail, most often by Trichophyton rubrum; presents with thickened, discolored, dystrophic nails; first-line oral therapy is terbinafine. Diagnosis confirmed by KOH/culture/PAS of nail clippings.
What is epidermolysis bullosa and what distinguishes its main types by cleavage plane?
A group of inherited blistering disorders from mutations in structural skin proteins. EB simplex: cleavage within basal keratinocytes (keratin 5/14). Junctional EB: within lamina lucida (laminin-332). Dystrophic EB: below lamina densa (type VII collagen), heals with scarring.
What are the diagnostic cutaneous features of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)?
Six or more cafe-au-lait macules, axillary/inguinal freckling (Crowe's sign), multiple neurofibromas, and Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas); NF1 is autosomal dominant (neurofibromin gene, chromosome 17).
What is the most common skin cancer, its typical appearance, and its behavior?
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC); presents as a pearly, translucent papule with rolled borders, telangiectasias, and possible central ulceration ('rodent ulcer'); locally invasive but rarely metastasizes.
What are the risk factors and key behavior of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?
Risk factors: chronic UV exposure, actinic keratoses (precursor), immunosuppression, chronic wounds/scars (Marjolin ulcer); SCC can metastasize, more readily than BCC, especially on lip/ear.
What is the ABCDE rule for melanoma, and what histologic measurement guides prognosis?
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolving. Breslow thickness (depth in mm) is the most important prognostic factor; greater depth means worse prognosis.
How does botulinum toxin work cosmetically and which lines does it best treat?
Botulinum toxin (Botox) cleaves SNAP-25, blocking acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, causing temporary muscle relaxation; best for dynamic wrinkles (glabellar frown lines, forehead lines, crow's feet). Effect lasts about 3-4 months.
What are dermal fillers commonly made of, and what is the main reversible agent for the most common type?
Most dermal fillers are hyaluronic acid (HA)-based, used to restore volume and soften static wrinkles/folds; HA fillers can be dissolved with hyaluronidase, important for managing vascular occlusion complications.
Classify chemical peels by depth and give an example agent for each.
Superficial (epidermis): glycolic acid, salicylic acid, Jessner's solution; Medium (papillary-upper reticular dermis): trichloroacetic acid (TCA 35-50%); Deep (mid-reticular dermis): phenol (Baker-Gordon). Deeper peels treat deeper lines but carry higher scarring/pigment risk.
What this deck covers
The Dermatology deck follows the FMGE Dermatology syllabus — 10 chapters and 28 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 5.1 cards per chapter.
Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 207 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.
A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.
Dermatology flashcards FAQ
How many Dermatology flashcards are in this FMGE deck?
51 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.
Are these FMGE flashcards free?
Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 51-card deck is free inside the Examius app.
What do the Dermatology cards cover?
They follow the FMGE Dermatology syllabus — 10 chapters and 28 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.
How should I use these flashcards?
Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.