FMGE Clinical Subjects (Medicine, Surgery, Obg, Pediatrics And Allied) Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Clinical Subjects (Medicine, Surgery, Obg, Pediatrics And Allied) deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is the classic radiographic feature of osteosarcoma, and which population is most affected?

   Sunburst appearance and Codman's triangle (periosteal reaction) on X-ray, typically around the knee in adolescents/young adults.

2. What is compartment syndrome, and what is the earliest and most reliable clinical sign?

   Increased pressure within a closed fascial compartment compromising perfusion. The earliest and most reliable sign is severe pain out of proportion to injury, especially pain on passive stretch of the muscles.

3. What are the ASA physical status classifications I through V used in anesthesia?

   I: normal healthy patient; II: mild systemic disease; III: severe systemic disease; IV: severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life; V: moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation.

4. What is malignant hyperthermia, what triggers it, and what is the specific treatment?

   A pharmacogenetic muscle disorder triggered by volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine, causing hypermetabolism, rigidity, and hyperthermia. Specific treatment is intravenous dantrolene plus supportive cooling.

5. Define the normal duration of pregnancy and the three trimesters.

   Normal pregnancy is about 40 weeks (280 days) from the last menstrual period. First trimester: weeks 1-12; second trimester: weeks 13-28; third trimester: weeks 29-40.

6. What is Naegele's rule for calculating the expected date of delivery?

   EDD = first day of last menstrual period + 1 year - 3 months + 7 days (assuming a regular 28-day cycle).

7. What are the three stages of labour and what defines each?

   First stage: onset of true labour to full cervical dilatation (10 cm). Second stage: full dilatation to delivery of the baby. Third stage: delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta.

8. What are the most common causes of primary postpartum hemorrhage (the 4 Ts)?

   Tone (uterine atony - most common), Trauma (genital tract lacerations), Tissue (retained placenta), and Thrombin (coagulopathy).

9. What are the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?

   New-onset hypertension (BP at least 140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation, with proteinuria (at least 300 mg/24h) or evidence of end-organ dysfunction.

10. What is the drug of choice for preventing and treating eclamptic seizures, and what is monitored for toxicity?

    Magnesium sulfate. Monitor for toxicity by checking deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output; the antidote is intravenous calcium gluconate.

11. Define the abnormal menstrual terms menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and oligomenorrhea.

    Menorrhagia: heavy/prolonged menstrual bleeding at regular intervals. Metrorrhagia: irregular bleeding between periods. Oligomenorrhea: infrequent menstruation with cycles longer than 35 days.

12. What are the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

    At least two of three: (1) oligo/anovulation, (2) clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and (3) polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (at least 12 follicles or ovarian volume >10 mL).

13. What is the most common cause of female infertility, and what is the most common cause of male infertility?

    Female: ovulatory dysfunction (commonly PCOS) and tubal factor. Male: idiopathic abnormal spermatogenesis (oligospermia/azoospermia), often assessed by semen analysis.

14. What organism causes bacterial vaginosis, and what are the Amsel criteria findings?

    Gardnerella vaginalis (with loss of lactobacilli). Amsel criteria: thin grey-white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, positive whiff (amine) test with KOH, and clue cells on microscopy.

15. What is the most common gynecological malignancy worldwide in developing countries, and what is its main causative agent?

    Cervical cancer; the main cause is persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18.

16. Classify contraceptive methods and give the most effective reversible method.

    Methods: barrier, hormonal (pills, injectables, implants), intrauterine devices, natural/fertility-awareness, and permanent (sterilization). The most effective reversible methods are long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) like the implant and IUD.

17. What is the mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptive pills?

    They primarily suppress ovulation by inhibiting the LH and FSH surge; they also thicken cervical mucus and thin the endometrium.

18. What are the four domains of child development assessed in developmental milestones?

    Gross motor, fine motor (and vision), language/hearing, and social/personal-adaptive development.

19. What vaccines are given at birth under the Indian National Immunization Schedule?

    BCG, oral polio vaccine (OPV-0), and hepatitis B (birth dose).

20. What is the APGAR score, and what are its five components?

    A score assessing neonatal well-being at 1 and 5 minutes after birth (0-2 each, total 0-10). Components: Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration.

21. What is physiological neonatal jaundice, and how is it distinguished from pathological jaundice?

    Physiological jaundice appears after 24 hours, peaks around day 3-5, and resolves by 1-2 weeks (unconjugated, mild). Pathological jaundice appears within 24 hours of birth, rises rapidly, or is prolonged, and requires investigation.

22. Differentiate marasmus and kwashiorkor as forms of severe acute malnutrition.

    Marasmus is severe energy deficiency with marked wasting, no edema, and an 'old man' appearance. Kwashiorkor is protein deficiency with edema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, and a relatively preserved weight masked by edema.

23. What deficiency causes Bitot's spots and night blindness, and what is the treatment?

    Vitamin A deficiency. Treatment is high-dose vitamin A supplementation.

24. What is the characteristic 'whoop' cough disease in children, its organism, and a hallmark lab finding?

    Pertussis (whooping cough) caused by Bordetella pertussis; characterized by paroxysmal cough with inspiratory whoop and marked lymphocytosis on blood count.

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Clinical Subjects (Medicine, Surgery, Obg, Pediatrics And Allied) flashcards FAQ