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INI CET Psychiatry Syllabus

The Psychiatry syllabus for INI CET in full: 10 chapters, 32 topics and 130 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Psychiatry flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

32Topics

130Sub-topics

51Flashcards

Psychiatry syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Introduction to Psychiatry
2 topics
- History of psychiatry
  - Evolution of psychiatric concepts and treatments
- Mental health and illness
  - Definition
  - Stigma
  - Determinants of mental health
Psychological Assessment
3 topics
- Mental status examination
  - Appearance
  - Behavior
  - Speech
  - Mood
  - Affect
  - Thought content
  - Thought process
  - Cognition
  - Insight
- Psychiatric history taking
  - Presenting complaints
  - Personal history
  - Family history
  - Medical history
  - Substance use history
  - Psychiatric treatment history
- Psychometric assessment
  - Screening tools (PHQ-9, GAD-7, AUDIT, CAGE)
  - Standardized rating scales (HAM-D, MADRS, PANSS)
Psychiatric Disorders
6 topics
- Mood disorders
  - Major depressive disorder
  - Bipolar disorder
  - Dysthymia
  - Cyclothymia
  - Mood disorder due to a medical condition or substance
- Anxiety disorders
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Panic disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Specific phobias
  - Obsessive-compulsive disorder
- Psychotic disorders
  - Schizophrenia
  - Schizophreniform disorder
  - Schizoaffective disorder
  - Delusional disorder
  - Brief psychotic disorder
- Substance-related disorders
  - Alcohol use disorder
  - Opioid use disorder
  - Stimulant use disorder
  - Cannabis use disorder
  - Tobacco use disorder
- Neurodevelopmental disorders
  - Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Intellectual disability
  - Specific learning disorders
- Personality disorders
  - Borderline personality disorder
  - Antisocial personality disorder
  - Narcissistic personality disorder
  - Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders
2 topics
- Somatoform disorders
  - Somatization disorder
  - Conversion disorder
  - Hypochondriasis
  - Somatic symptom disorder
- Dissociative disorders
  - Dissociative amnesia
  - Dissociative fugue
  - Depersonalization/derealization disorder
  - Dissociative identity disorder
Eating Disorders
3 topics
- Anorexia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Nutritional rehabilitation
  - Psychotherapy
- Bulimia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
- Binge-eating disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Psychotherapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
Sleep Disorders
3 topics
- Insomnia disorder
  - Difficulty falling asleep
  - Difficulty staying asleep
  - Non-restorative sleep
  - Sleep hygiene
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia
- Sleep-related breathing disorders
  - Obstructive sleep apnea
  - Central sleep apnea
  - Continuous positive airway pressure
  - Weight loss
- Parasomnias
  - Nightmare disorder
  - Sleep terror disorder
  - Sleepwalking disorder
  - REM sleep behavior disorder
Sexual Disorders
3 topics
- Sexual dysfunctions
  - Erectile dysfunction
  - Premature ejaculation
  - Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
  - Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
- Paraphilic disorders
  - Exhibitionism
  - Voyeurism
  - Fetishism
  - Pedophilia
  - Sexual masochism/sadism
- Gender dysphoria
  - Incongruence between assigned gender and experienced gender
  - Clinical features
  - Psychosocial support
  - Hormone therapy
  - Gender-affirming surgery
Geriatric Psychiatry
3 topics
- Dementia
  - Alzheimer's disease
  - Vascular dementia
  - Lewy body dementia
  - Frontotemporal dementia
  - Management (cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine)
- Delirium
  - Clinical features
  - Etiology (infection, medication, metabolic disturbances)
  - Management (identifying and treating underlying causes)
- Late-life depression
  - Clinical features
  - Risk factors
  - Management (antidepressant medications, psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy)
Child and Adolescent Psychiatry
4 topics
- Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (stimulant medications, behavioral therapy)
- Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Core features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (behavioral interventions, social skills training)
- Conduct disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnostic criteria (DSM-5)
  - Management (parent management training, cognitive-behavioral therapy)
- Pediatric anxiety disorders
  - Separation anxiety disorder
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Management (cognitive-behavioral therapy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry
3 topics
- Mental health legislation
  - Involuntary hospitalization
  - Capacity to consent
  - Confidentiality
- Ethical principles in psychiatry
  - Autonomy
  - Beneficence
  - Nonmaleficence
  - Justice
- Forensic psychiatry
  - Assessment of competency
  - Criminal responsibility
  - Civil commitment

INI CET Psychiatry flashcards — 51 questions with answers

Who is regarded as the 'father of descriptive psychiatry' and is known for the classification dividing major psychoses into dementia praecox and manic-depressive insanity?
Emil Kraepelin. His distinction between dementia praecox (later schizophrenia) and manic-depressive illness forms the basis of modern psychiatric nosology.
According to the WHO, what is the definition of mental health?
A state of well-being in which an individual realizes their own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to contribute to their community. It is not merely the absence of mental illness.
What are the main components, in order, of the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
Appearance & behaviour, Speech, Mood & affect, Thought (form/content/possession), Perception, Cognition (orientation, attention, memory), Insight, and Judgement.
In an MSE, what is the difference between 'mood' and 'affect'?
Mood is the patient's sustained, subjectively reported emotional state ('how you feel'); affect is the examiner's objective observation of the patient's expressed emotion at the moment, described by quality, range, and congruence.
What is the difference between an illusion and a hallucination?
An illusion is a misperception of a real external stimulus; a hallucination is a perception occurring in the absence of any external stimulus, experienced as real and arising in external space.
What is the standard structure of a psychiatric history?
Identifying data, chief complaint, history of present illness, past psychiatric history, past medical history, family history, personal/developmental history, premorbid personality, and substance use history.
What is the difference between intelligence and personality on psychometric testing, and name a classic test for each?
Intelligence is assessed by tests like the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS); personality is assessed by tests like the MMPI (objective) and the Rorschach inkblot test (projective).
What MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination) score range typically suggests cognitive impairment/dementia?
MMSE is scored out of 30; a score below 24 suggests cognitive impairment, with 18-23 indicating mild and below 18 indicating severe impairment (adjusted for education).
What are the DSM-5 duration criteria for a major depressive episode versus a manic episode?
Major depressive episode: 5+ symptoms for at least 2 weeks. Manic episode: elevated/irritable mood with increased energy for at least 1 week (or any duration if hospitalization required).
How is Bipolar I disorder distinguished from Bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode (depression not required); Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode plus at least one major depressive episode, with no history of full mania.
What is the minimum duration criterion for persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) in adults?
Depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years (1 year in children/adolescents), with no symptom-free period longer than 2 months.
What is the DSM-5 duration requirement for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
Excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities, that is difficult to control.
What characterizes a panic attack, and how soon does it peak?
An abrupt surge of intense fear or discomfort with 4+ somatic/cognitive symptoms (e.g., palpitations, sweating, derealization, fear of dying) that peaks within minutes (typically about 10 minutes).
What is agoraphobia in DSM-5?
Marked fear/anxiety about 2+ of: public transport, open spaces, enclosed spaces, standing in line/crowds, or being outside the home alone, due to fear that escape might be difficult or help unavailable; duration typically 6+ months.
What are Schneider's first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia?
Audible thoughts, third-person/running-commentary auditory hallucinations, thought withdrawal/insertion/broadcasting, made (passivity) feelings/impulses/actions, somatic passivity, and delusional perception.
What are the DSM-5 symptom and duration criteria for schizophrenia?
Two or more of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized/catatonic behaviour, or negative symptoms (at least one core positive symptom) for a significant portion of 1 month, with continuous disturbance for at least 6 months.
How does schizophreniform disorder differ from schizophrenia and brief psychotic disorder by duration?
Brief psychotic disorder lasts 1 day to less than 1 month; schizophreniform disorder lasts 1 to less than 6 months; schizophrenia lasts 6 months or more.
What is the difference between schizoaffective disorder and a mood disorder with psychotic features?
In schizoaffective disorder, delusions/hallucinations persist for at least 2 weeks in the ABSENCE of a major mood episode; if psychosis occurs only during mood episodes, it is a mood disorder with psychotic features.
In substance use disorders, what is the difference between tolerance and withdrawal?
Tolerance is the need for markedly increased amounts to achieve the desired effect (or diminished effect with the same amount); withdrawal is the characteristic syndrome of physiological/psychological symptoms when use is stopped or reduced.
What is the CAGE questionnaire used to screen for, and what score is significant?
Alcohol use disorder. CAGE = Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener; a score of 2 or more positive answers is clinically significant for problematic drinking.

Show the other 31 Psychiatry flashcards

What is delirium tremens and its typical onset after the last alcohol drink?
A severe, life-threatening alcohol withdrawal state with autonomic hyperactivity, confusion, agitation, and hallucinations, typically beginning 48-72 hours after the last drink.
By what age must symptoms of a neurodevelopmental disorder such as ADHD have been present according to DSM-5?
Several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms must have been present before age 12 years.
What are the three clusters of personality disorders in DSM-5, with their themes?
Cluster A (odd/eccentric): paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal. Cluster B (dramatic/erratic): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic. Cluster C (anxious/fearful): avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive.
What features distinguish borderline personality disorder?
A pervasive pattern of instability in relationships, self-image, and affect, with marked impulsivity: frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, identity disturbance, recurrent self-harm/suicidal behaviour, chronic emptiness, and stress-related paranoia/dissociation.
What is the core feature of somatic symptom disorder in DSM-5, and how does it differ from illness anxiety disorder?
Somatic symptom disorder involves one or more distressing somatic symptoms plus excessive thoughts/feelings/behaviours about them; illness anxiety disorder is preoccupation with HAVING or acquiring a serious illness with minimal or no actual somatic symptoms.
What is conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)?
Neurological symptoms (e.g., weakness, blindness, non-epileptic seizures) incompatible with recognized medical conditions, often linked to psychological stressors and classically associated with 'la belle indifférence.'
What are the major dissociative disorders in DSM-5?
Dissociative identity disorder (two or more distinct personality states), dissociative amnesia (with or without fugue), and depersonalization/derealization disorder.
What are the core DSM-5 diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa?
Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or behaviour interfering with weight gain, and disturbed body image/undue influence of weight on self-evaluation.
How is bulimia nervosa distinguished from binge-eating disorder?
Both involve recurrent binge eating; bulimia nervosa includes recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours (e.g., self-induced vomiting, laxatives, fasting, excessive exercise), whereas binge-eating disorder has binges WITHOUT regular compensatory behaviour.
What are the DSM-5 frequency and duration criteria for bulimia nervosa?
Binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occurring, on average, at least once a week for 3 months.
What is the Russell's sign and which eating disorder is it associated with?
Calluses or scarring on the dorsum of the hand/knuckles from self-induced vomiting; classically associated with bulimia nervosa (also seen in purging-type anorexia).
What is the DSM-5 duration criterion for chronic insomnia disorder?
Sleep difficulty occurring at least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months, despite adequate opportunity for sleep, causing significant distress or impairment.
What is obstructive sleep apnea and a key diagnostic finding on polysomnography?
Repetitive episodes of upper airway collapse during sleep causing apneas/hypopneas; diagnosis requires an Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) of 5+ with symptoms, or 15+ regardless of symptoms.
What is the difference between a parasomnia occurring in NREM versus REM sleep, with examples?
NREM parasomnias arise from deep slow-wave sleep with no/poor dream recall (e.g., sleepwalking, sleep terrors); REM parasomnias involve dream enactment with recall (e.g., REM sleep behaviour disorder, nightmare disorder).
What are the four phases of the normal human sexual response cycle described by Masters and Johnson?
Excitement (arousal), plateau, orgasm, and resolution. (DSM models add a desire phase preceding excitement.)
What is the difference between a sexual dysfunction and a paraphilic disorder?
A sexual dysfunction is a clinically significant disturbance in the ability to respond sexually or experience sexual pleasure; a paraphilic disorder is intense atypical sexual interest causing distress/impairment or harm to others (e.g., pedophilic, exhibitionistic disorder).
What is the DSM-5 minimum duration for diagnosing a paraphilic disorder?
The atypical arousal pattern must be present for at least 6 months and cause distress/impairment or involve nonconsenting persons.
How is gender dysphoria defined in DSM-5?
A marked incongruence between one's experienced/expressed gender and assigned gender, lasting at least 6 months, associated with clinically significant distress or impairment.
What pathological feature distinguishes Alzheimer's disease dementia?
Extracellular beta-amyloid (senile) plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau, with early prominent impairment of recent memory and a gradually progressive course.
What are the core clinical features that distinguish dementia with Lewy bodies?
Fluctuating cognition, recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations, spontaneous parkinsonism, REM sleep behaviour disorder, and marked sensitivity to antipsychotics; presence of Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein).
What are the key features distinguishing delirium from dementia?
Delirium has acute onset, fluctuating course, impaired attention/consciousness, and is usually reversible (often from a medical cause); dementia has insidious onset, progressive course, relatively preserved consciousness early, and prominent memory loss.
What is the hyperactive versus hypoactive subtype of delirium, and which is more often missed?
Hyperactive: agitation, restlessness, hallucinations. Hypoactive: lethargy, reduced activity, withdrawal — this subtype is more commonly missed and carries a worse prognosis.
What features help distinguish late-life (geriatric) depression from dementia (pseudodementia)?
In depressive pseudodementia, onset is relatively rapid, the patient complains about memory loss, gives 'don't know' answers, and cognition improves with antidepressant treatment; in dementia, deficits are progressive and the patient often minimizes them.
What are the two core symptom domains of ADHD, and how many symptoms are needed for a child diagnosis?
Inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity; at least 6 symptoms in either domain (5 for those 17 and older) present for at least 6 months in 2+ settings, with onset before age 12.
What are the two core diagnostic domains of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) in DSM-5?
(1) Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts; and (2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities; with onset in early developmental period.
How does conduct disorder differ from oppositional defiant disorder?
Conduct disorder involves repetitive violation of others' basic rights or major societal norms (aggression to people/animals, destruction, deceit/theft, serious rule violations); ODD is a pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behaviour, and vindictiveness without major rights violations.
What is separation anxiety disorder and its duration requirement in children?
Developmentally inappropriate, excessive fear/anxiety about separation from attachment figures; symptoms must persist for at least 4 weeks in children and adolescents (6 months in adults).
Under India's Mental Healthcare Act 2017, what is an Advance Directive?
A document by which a person specifies how they wish to be (or not be) treated for mental illness and nominates a representative, to be respected if they later lose decision-making capacity.
What are the four core bioethical principles relevant to psychiatric practice?
Autonomy (respecting patient self-determination), beneficence (acting in the patient's best interest), non-maleficence (do no harm), and justice (fair distribution of care and resources).
What is the M'Naghten rule in forensic psychiatry?
A legal test for the insanity defense: a defendant is not criminally responsible if, due to a defect of reason from disease of the mind, they did not know the nature/quality of the act or did not know that it was wrong.
What is the difference between competence to stand trial and criminal responsibility (insanity defense)?
Competence to stand trial concerns the defendant's CURRENT mental state — ability to understand proceedings and assist counsel; criminal responsibility (insanity) concerns the defendant's mental state at the TIME of the offense.

Same Psychiatry syllabus in other exams

The Psychiatry outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

INI CET Psychiatry FAQ

What is in the INI CET Psychiatry syllabus?

INI CET Psychiatry is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Psychiatry, Psychological Assessment, Psychiatric Disorders, Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders, Eating Disorders, Sleep Disorders, Sexual Disorders, Geriatric Psychiatry, Child and Adolescent Psychiatry and Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry. Together they contain 32 topics and 130 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in INI CET Psychiatry?

10 chapters, containing 32 topics and 130 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Psychiatric Disorders, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for INI CET Psychiatry?

Yes — a 51-card Psychiatry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.