🇮🇳 INI CET · subject
INI CET Anesthasia Syllabus
The Anesthasia syllabus for INI CET in full: 10 chapters, 27 topics and 70 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Anesthasia flashcards with answers.
Anesthasia syllabus: all 10 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Introduction to Anesthesia
2 topics- History of Anesthesia
- Evolution of anesthesia techniques and drugs
- Principles of Anesthesia
- Goals of anesthesia (analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, and homeostasis)
- Stages of anesthesia
- Monitoring techniques
- History of Anesthesia
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Preoperative Evaluation
3 topics- Preoperative assessment
- Patient history (medical, surgical, and anesthesia history), physical examination, and laboratory investigations
- Assessment of comorbidities
- Cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, hepatic, and endocrine disorders
- Optimization of medical conditions
- Preoperative medication management, control of hypertension, diabetes, and other systemic diseases
- Preoperative assessment
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Anesthetic Pharmacology
3 topics- General Anesthetics
- Inhalational Anesthetics
- Intravenous Anesthetics
- Adjunctive Drugs
- Local Anesthetics
- Mechanism of Action
- Pharmacokinetics
- Types
- Adverse Effects
- Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
- Depolarizing Agents
- Non-Depolarizing Agents
- General Anesthetics
-
Anesthetic Techniques
3 topics- General anesthesia
- Inhalational anesthesia
- Intravenous anesthesia
- Balanced anesthesia techniques
- Regional anesthesia
- Spinal anesthesia
- Epidural anesthesia
- Peripheral nerve blocks
- Local infiltration anesthesia
- Monitored anesthesia care (MAC)
- Sedation techniques for conscious sedation during minor procedures
- General anesthesia
-
Airway Management
3 topics- Endotracheal Intubation
- Indications
- Equipment
- Techniques
- Complications
- Supraglottic Airway Devices
- Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)
- Intubating LMA
- Complications
- Difficult Airway Management
- Recognition of Difficult Airway
- Strategies
- Emergency Airway Algorithms
- Endotracheal Intubation
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Anesthetic Complications
3 topics- Hypotension
- Causes
- Diagnosis
- Management
- Hypoxemia
- Causes
- Diagnosis
- Management
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Pathophysiology
- Clinical features
- Diagnosis
- Management
- Hypotension
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Postoperative Care
2 topics- Post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)
- Monitoring (vital signs, pain assessment)
- Management of postoperative complications (pain, nausea, vomiting)
- Discharge criteria
- Pain management
- Analgesic techniques (opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
- Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
- Regional anesthesia techniques for postoperative pain relief
- Post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)
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Special Situations in Anesthesia
3 topics- Pediatric Anesthesia
- Anesthetic considerations in children (dose calculation, airway management)
- Management of congenital abnormalities
- Obstetric Anesthesia
- Anesthesia techniques for cesarean section (spinal anesthesia, epidural anesthesia)
- Management of preeclampsia
- Fetal monitoring
- Geriatric Anesthesia
- Anesthetic considerations in elderly patients (physiological changes, comorbidities)
- Management of postoperative delirium
- Pediatric Anesthesia
-
Anesthesia for Specific Surgical Procedures
3 topics- Cardiothoracic anesthesia
- Anesthetic management for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
- Anesthetic management for valve replacement
- Anesthetic management for thoracic surgery
- Neurosurgical anesthesia
- Anesthetic considerations for craniotomy
- Anesthetic considerations for intracranial aneurysm clipping
- Anesthetic considerations for spinal surgery
- Orthopedic anesthesia
- Anesthetic techniques for joint replacement surgery (total hip arthroplasty)
- Anesthetic techniques for joint replacement surgery (total knee arthroplasty)
- Management of acute pain
- Cardiothoracic anesthesia
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Emerging Trends in Anesthesia
2 topics- Enhanced Recovery after Surgery (ERAS)
- Multimodal perioperative care pathways to optimize patient outcomes and reduce length of hospital stay
- Point-of-Care Ultrasound (POCUS)
- Use of ultrasound for vascular access
- Use of ultrasound for nerve localization
- Use of ultrasound for diagnosis of pneumothorax during anesthesia
- Enhanced Recovery after Surgery (ERAS)
INI CET Anesthasia flashcards — 51 questions with answers
Who administered the first successful public demonstration of ether anesthesia, and where/when did it occur?
William T. G. Morton demonstrated ether anesthesia on October 16, 1846, at Massachusetts General Hospital (the 'Ether Dome'), for a neck tumor removal by surgeon John Collins Warren.
What is the difference between the MAC of an inhalational agent and the concept of MAC-awake?
MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration) is the alveolar concentration of an agent that prevents movement to a surgical stimulus in 50% of patients; MAC-awake is the concentration at which 50% of patients respond to verbal command, roughly one-third of MAC.
What does the ASA Physical Status Classification System grade, and what does ASA III signify?
It grades a patient's pre-anesthetic fitness from I to VI. ASA III is a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating (substantive functional limitation), e.g., poorly controlled diabetes or hypertension.
What are the standard ASA preoperative fasting guidelines for clear liquids, breast milk, and a light meal?
Clear liquids 2 hours, breast milk 4 hours, infant formula/non-human milk and a light meal 6 hours, and a heavy/fatty meal 8 hours before anesthesia.
According to the revised cardiac risk index (RCRI), name three of the six predictors of perioperative cardiac complications.
High-risk surgery, ischemic heart disease, history of congestive heart failure, history of cerebrovascular disease, insulin-dependent diabetes, and preoperative creatinine >2.0 mg/dL.
In preoperative airway assessment, what does the Mallampati classification grade and what does Class IV indicate?
It grades the visibility of oropharyngeal structures with the mouth open and tongue protruded. Class IV means only the hard palate is visible (soft palate, uvula, and fauces not seen), predicting a potentially difficult intubation.
How should chronic beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors generally be managed on the morning of surgery?
Continue beta-blockers (abrupt withdrawal causes rebound tachycardia/ischemia); ACE inhibitors and ARBs are often held on the morning of surgery to reduce intraoperative hypotension.
What perioperative glycemic target and insulin strategy is generally advised for diabetic patients?
Maintain blood glucose roughly 140-180 mg/dL; hold oral hypoglycemics and short-acting insulin, give a reduced dose of long-acting/basal insulin, and monitor glucose frequently to avoid hypoglycemia.
What are the three components ('triad') of balanced general anesthesia?
Hypnosis (unconsciousness), analgesia (pain relief), and muscle relaxation (areflexia/immobility), often with autonomic stability as a fourth goal.
What property of an inhalational agent does the blood:gas partition coefficient predict?
Speed of induction and emergence. A low blood:gas coefficient (e.g., desflurane 0.42, nitrous oxide 0.47) means faster onset/offset; a high coefficient (e.g., isoflurane 1.4) means slower.
Which inhalational anesthetic is contraindicated in malignant hyperthermia-susceptible patients, and which is associated with halothane hepatitis?
All volatile halogenated agents (and succinylcholine) trigger malignant hyperthermia and are avoided; halothane is the classic cause of halothane hepatitis (immune-mediated hepatic necrosis).
What is the mechanism of action of propofol, and what is its hallmark cardiovascular side effect?
Propofol potentiates GABA-A receptor activity (increasing chloride conductance). Its hallmark effect is dose-dependent hypotension due to vasodilation and myocardial depression; it also causes injection pain and apnea.
Why is ketamine described as a 'dissociative' anesthetic, and what makes it useful in hypotensive/asthmatic patients?
Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist producing dissociation between the thalamocortical and limbic systems. It is a bronchodilator and sympathomimetic (raises BP/HR), useful in shock and asthma, but causes emergence delirium.
What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
They reversibly block voltage-gated sodium channels on the inner axonal membrane, preventing depolarization and propagation of the action potential along the nerve fiber.
How does the structural class of a local anesthetic (ester vs amide) affect its metabolism and allergy risk?
Esters (e.g., procaine, tetracaine; one 'i' in name) are metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase into PABA, with higher allergy risk; amides (e.g., lidocaine, bupivacaine; two 'i's) are metabolized by hepatic enzymes with low allergy risk.
What are the maximum recommended doses of lidocaine with and without epinephrine?
Lidocaine without epinephrine: ~4.5 mg/kg (max ~300 mg); with epinephrine: ~7 mg/kg (max ~500 mg). Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, slowing absorption and prolonging the block.
What are the cardinal signs of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST), and what is the specific antidote?
Early CNS signs: perioral numbness, tinnitus, metallic taste, seizures; later cardiovascular collapse (especially with bupivacaine). Treatment is 20% intravenous lipid emulsion ('lipid rescue') plus supportive ACLS.
What is the mechanism of depolarizing versus non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Depolarizing agents (succinylcholine) are acetylcholine-receptor agonists causing persistent depolarization (fasciculations then flaccid paralysis); non-depolarizing agents (e.g., rocuronium, vecuronium) are competitive ACh-receptor antagonists.
Why is succinylcholine used for rapid sequence intubation, and what are key contraindications?
It has the fastest onset (~45 s) and shortest duration (~5-10 min). Contraindicated where hyperkalemia is dangerous: burns, crush/denervation injury, prolonged immobilization, and in malignant hyperthermia susceptibility.
How does sugammadex reverse rocuronium/vecuronium blockade compared with neostigmine?
Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that encapsulates aminosteroid (rocuronium/vecuronium) molecules, rapidly reversing even deep block. Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that raises ACh and only reverses shallow/moderate block, requiring an antimuscarinic (glycopyrrolate).
Show the other 31 Anesthasia flashcards
What are the four classic stages of general (ether) anesthesia described by Guedel?
Stage I: analgesia/amnesia; Stage II: excitement/delirium (irregular breathing, risk of laryngospasm/vomiting); Stage III: surgical anesthesia (4 planes); Stage IV: medullary paralysis/overdose (apnea, cardiovascular collapse).
Compare spinal and epidural anesthesia in terms of injection site, onset, and dose.
Spinal: single small dose injected into the subarachnoid (intrathecal) space below L2, rapid dense block; epidural: larger dose into the epidural (potential) space, slower onset, catheter allows continuous/titratable block.
Why is spinal anesthesia avoided above the L2 vertebral level in adults?
The spinal cord (conus medullaris) typically ends at L1-L2; needle insertion below this level (e.g., L3-L4) avoids direct cord injury.
What is Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) and how does it differ from general anesthesia?
MAC is anesthesia care where the patient receives sedation/analgesia with monitoring while typically breathing spontaneously and able to respond, often combined with local anesthesia; unlike general anesthesia there is no controlled unconsciousness or airway control by definition.
What is the gold standard for confirming correct endotracheal tube placement?
Detection of sustained end-tidal CO2 (capnography) over several breaths, confirming tracheal (not esophageal) placement; bilateral breath sounds and chest rise are supportive but not definitive.
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate, and why do endobronchial intubations usually enter the right main bronchus?
The carina is at about T4-T5 (sternal angle). The right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical, so a tube advanced too far typically enters it, ventilating only the right lung.
What is a supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA), and a key limitation compared to an endotracheal tube?
It is a device seated over the glottis to maintain a patent airway without passing through the cords. Its key limitation is that it does not fully protect against aspiration of gastric contents, so it is avoided in full-stomach/high-aspiration-risk patients.
In the ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm, what is the priority action in a 'cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate' (CICO) emergency?
Call for help, attempt supraglottic airway rescue, and if oxygenation still fails, proceed immediately to emergency invasive airway access (cricothyrotomy/front-of-neck access).
Name three preoperative predictors of a difficult bag-mask ventilation (mnemonic).
Using 'MOANS': Mask seal problems (beard), Obesity/Obstruction, Age >55, No teeth, Stiff lungs/Snoring (OSA). Any of these predicts difficult mask ventilation.
List the major intraoperative causes of hypotension under anesthesia by category.
Decreased preload (hypovolemia, hemorrhage, caval compression), decreased afterload (anesthetic-induced vasodilation, anaphylaxis, sepsis, neuraxial block), and decreased contractility/rate (myocardial depression, arrhythmia, ischemia, high spinal).
What is the systematic approach (mnemonic) to intraoperative hypoxemia (falling SpO2)?
'DOPES': Displaced tube, Obstruction of tube, Pneumothorax, Equipment failure, Stacking breaths (and check stomach distension). Also consider hypoventilation, V/Q mismatch, shunt, and diffusion limitation; immediate step is 100% O2 and confirm ventilation.
What is malignant hyperthermia, its triggers, and the pathognomonic early sign?
A pharmacogenetic hypermetabolic crisis (often RYR1 gene/ryanodine receptor mutation) triggered by volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine. The earliest reliable sign is an unexplained rise in end-tidal CO2; masseter spasm, tachycardia, rigidity, and late hyperthermia follow.
What is the specific drug treatment for malignant hyperthermia and its initial dose?
Dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg IV bolus, repeated until the crisis resolves; it inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Stop triggering agents, hyperventilate with 100% O2, and cool the patient.
What are the main discharge criteria assessed in the PACU (e.g., Modified Aldrete score components)?
Activity (movement of limbs), Respiration, Circulation (blood pressure), Consciousness, and Oxygen saturation; each scored 0-2, with a score of 9-10 generally required for discharge.
What is the most common postoperative complication addressed in the PACU besides pain, and name two antiemetics used?
Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Treated with ondansetron (5-HT3 antagonist), dexamethasone, and droperidol/metoclopramide; risk is predicted by the Apfel score.
What is the WHO analgesic ladder, and how is it applied to acute postoperative pain?
A stepwise approach: Step 1 non-opioids (paracetamol/NSAIDs), Step 2 weak opioids (codeine/tramadol), Step 3 strong opioids (morphine). For severe acute postoperative pain the ladder is often used in reverse (start strong, step down).
What is multimodal (balanced) analgesia and why is it preferred?
Combining analgesics with different mechanisms (e.g., paracetamol, NSAIDs, regional blocks, opioids) to achieve additive/synergistic pain control while minimizing the dose and side effects (sedation, respiratory depression) of any single agent, especially opioids.
Why are children more prone to rapid desaturation during anesthesia induction?
They have a higher oxygen consumption per kg and a lower functional residual capacity (FRC), so their oxygen reserve is depleted quickly during apnea, causing faster desaturation than adults.
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest under anesthesia in children, and the most common perioperative airway complication?
Respiratory/airway events (hypoxemia from laryngospasm or airway obstruction) are the leading cause; laryngospasm is the most common perioperative airway complication in pediatric patients.
What physiological changes of pregnancy increase aspiration and hypoxemia risk during obstetric anesthesia?
Decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone and delayed gastric emptying increase aspiration risk; reduced FRC with increased oxygen consumption causes rapid desaturation. Aortocaval compression by the gravid uterus also causes supine hypotension.
What is the preferred anesthetic technique for cesarean section and its main acute complication?
Spinal (subarachnoid) anesthesia is preferred for elective cesarean section; its main acute complication is hypotension from sympathetic blockade, managed with left uterine displacement, fluids, and a vasopressor such as phenylephrine.
How do anesthetic requirements change in the geriatric patient?
MAC of inhalational agents decreases (~6% per decade after 40) and sensitivity to opioids/benzodiazepines increases; reduced renal/hepatic clearance, decreased cardiac reserve, and reduced protein binding require dose reduction and slow titration.
In cardiothoracic anesthesia, what is the purpose of one-lung ventilation and how is it achieved?
It collapses the operative (non-dependent) lung to provide surgical access (e.g., thoracotomy/VATS) while ventilating the dependent lung. It is achieved with a double-lumen endotracheal tube or a bronchial blocker.
What are the anesthetic goals in a patient with aortic stenosis?
Maintain sinus rhythm, adequate preload, and systemic vascular resistance (coronary perfusion); avoid tachycardia, hypotension, and large drops in afterload because the fixed obstruction limits cardiac output ('full, slow, and tight').
What is the relationship between MAP, ICP, and cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) in neurosurgical anesthesia?
CPP = MAP - ICP (or CVP, whichever is higher). Maintaining CPP (typically >60 mmHg) requires supporting MAP and lowering ICP; this guides hemodynamic management during craniotomy.
How does PaCO2 affect cerebral blood flow, and how is this used to reduce intracranial pressure?
Cerebral blood flow varies directly with PaCO2 (vasodilation with hypercapnia, vasoconstriction with hypocapnia). Controlled hyperventilation to a PaCO2 ~30-35 mmHg acutely reduces cerebral blood volume and ICP.
What is the deadliest complication associated with the use of a tourniquet and cement in orthopedic (e.g., hip) anesthesia?
Bone cement implantation syndrome (from methyl methacrylate) and fat/marrow embolism, causing sudden hypoxemia, hypotension, pulmonary hypertension, and possible cardiac arrest, classically during prosthesis insertion.
Why is regional anesthesia (neuraxial) often preferred for major lower-limb orthopedic surgery?
It reduces blood loss, lowers the risk of deep vein thrombosis, provides superior postoperative analgesia, decreases PONV, and avoids airway manipulation compared with general anesthesia.
What are the core principles of Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocols relevant to anesthesia?
Preoperative carbohydrate loading and avoiding prolonged fasting, multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia and regional techniques, PONV prophylaxis, normothermia and euvolemia (goal-directed fluids), and early mobilization/feeding to speed recovery.
List three perioperative uses of point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) in anesthesia.
Ultrasound-guided regional nerve blocks and vascular (central/arterial) access, gastric ultrasound to assess aspiration risk, and focused cardiac/lung (e.g., FATE, FoCUS) exams to evaluate hypotension, volume status, or pneumothorax.
In ultrasound-guided regional anesthesia, what is the difference between 'in-plane' and 'out-of-plane' needle approaches?
In-plane: the needle is aligned with the long axis of the probe so the entire shaft and tip are visualized as it advances; out-of-plane: the needle crosses the beam perpendicularly, appearing only as a single bright dot, making tip tracking harder.
Same Anesthasia syllabus in other exams
The Anesthasia outline above is identical in these 3 exams:
INI CET Anesthasia FAQ
What is in the INI CET Anesthasia syllabus?
INI CET Anesthasia is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Anesthesia, Preoperative Evaluation, Anesthetic Pharmacology, Anesthetic Techniques, Airway Management, Anesthetic Complications, Postoperative Care, Special Situations in Anesthesia, Anesthesia for Specific Surgical Procedures and Emerging Trends in Anesthesia. Together they contain 27 topics and 70 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in INI CET Anesthasia?
10 chapters, containing 27 topics and 70 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Preoperative Evaluation, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for INI CET Anesthasia?
Yes — a 51-card Anesthasia deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.