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INI CET Radiology Syllabus

The Radiology syllabus for INI CET in full: 10 chapters, 26 topics and 69 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Radiology flashcards with answers.

10Chapters
26Topics
69Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Radiology syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Introduction to Radiology

     2 topics
    • History of radiology
      • Evolution of imaging techniques and modalities
    • Basics of radiological physics
      • X-ray production
      • Interactions of X-rays with matter
      • Radiation safety

  2. Radiological Anatomy

     3 topics
    • Radiological anatomy of the chest
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the lungs
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the mediastinum
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the pleura
    • Radiological anatomy of the abdomen
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the liver
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the spleen
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the pancreas
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the kidneys
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the urinary tract
    • Radiological anatomy of the musculoskeletal system
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the bones
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the joints
      • Normal radiographic anatomy of the soft tissues

  3. Diagnostic Radiography

     3 topics
    • Chest Radiography
      • Technique
      • Positioning (Posteroanterior, Lateral, and Oblique Views)
      • Interpretation of Common Findings (Pneumonia, Pneumothorax, Pleural Effusion)
    • Abdominal Radiography
      • Technique
      • Positioning (Supine, Upright, and Decubitus Views)
      • Interpretation of Common Findings (Intestinal Obstruction, Bowel Perforation, Renal Calculi)
    • Skeletal Radiography
      • Technique
      • Positioning (Anteroposterior, Lateral, and Oblique Views)
      • Interpretation of Common Findings (Fractures, Dislocations, Osteoarthritis)

  4. Fluoroscopy

     2 topics
    • Upper gastrointestinal (GI) series
      • Technique
      • Indications
      • Interpretation of barium swallow studies for evaluation of esophageal and gastric pathology
    • Barium enema
      • Technique
      • Indications
      • Interpretation of barium enema studies for evaluation of colorectal pathology

  5. Computed Tomography (CT)

     3 topics
    • Principles of CT imaging
      • Generation of CT images
      • Contrast enhancement
      • Multiplanar reconstruction
    • CT of the head
      • Indications
      • Protocols (non-contrast, contrast-enhanced)
      • Interpretation of findings (intracranial hemorrhage, brain tumors, stroke)
    • CT of the chest and abdomen
      • Indications
      • Protocols (contrast-enhanced, multiphase)
      • Interpretation of findings (pulmonary embolism, solid organ injuries, abdominal masses)

  6. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

     3 topics
    • Principles of MRI imaging
      • Generation of MRI images
      • Tissue contrast
      • Pulse sequences (T1-weighted, T2-weighted, diffusion-weighted)
    • MRI of the brain and spine
      • Indications
      • Protocols (with and without contrast)
      • Interpretation of findings (brain tumors, spinal cord compression, multiple sclerosis)
    • MRI of the musculoskeletal system
      • Indications
      • Protocols (with and without contrast)
      • Interpretation of findings (ligamentous injuries, soft tissue tumors, osteomyelitis)

  7. Ultrasound Imaging

     3 topics
    • Principles of ultrasound imaging
      • Generation of ultrasound images
      • Transducer types
      • Doppler imaging
    • Abdominal ultrasound
      • Indications
      • Techniques (transabdominal, transvaginal)
      • Interpretation of findings (liver cysts, gallstones, renal calculi)
    • Obstetric ultrasound
      • Indications
      • Techniques (transabdominal, transvaginal)
      • Interpretation of findings (fetal anatomy, placental abnormalities)

  8. Principles of nuclear medicine imaging

     3 topics
    • Radiopharmaceuticals
    • Gamma cameras
    • Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

  9. Interventional Radiology

     2 topics
    • Image-guided procedures
      • Percutaneous biopsies
      • Drainages
      • Catheter-based interventions
    • Minimally invasive therapies
      • Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) for tumor treatment
      • Microwave ablation for tumor treatment
      • Cryoablation for tumor treatment

  10. Radiation Oncology

     2 topics
    • Principles of radiation therapy
      • External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)
      • Brachytherapy
      • Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)
    • Planning and delivery of radiation therapy
      • Treatment planning techniques (CT simulation, treatment planning software)
      • Radiation delivery methods (linear accelerators, gamma knife)

INI CET Radiology flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. Who discovered X-rays and in what year, and how were they initially named?

    Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered X-rays in 1895; he called them 'X-rays' because their nature was unknown ('X' for the unknown). He won the first Nobel Prize in Physics (1901).

  2. Which radioactivity discoveries laid the foundation for nuclear medicine, and who made them?

    Henri Becquerel discovered natural radioactivity (uranium, 1896), and Marie and Pierre Curie discovered radium and polonium (1898); their work enabled radiopharmaceutical use of radioisotopes.

  3. How are diagnostic X-rays produced in an X-ray tube?

    A heated cathode (filament) emits electrons by thermionic emission; these are accelerated by a high voltage (kVp) toward a tungsten anode (target). On striking the target, ~99% of energy becomes heat and ~1% becomes X-rays via bremsstrahlung and characteristic radiation.

  4. What do kVp and mAs control in an X-ray exposure?

    kVp (kilovoltage peak) controls X-ray energy/penetration and influences image contrast (higher kVp = lower contrast). mAs (tube current x time) controls the quantity of X-rays produced and therefore image density/brightness and patient dose.

  5. What are the five primary radiographic densities (from least to most attenuating)?

    Air (most radiolucent/black), fat, soft tissue/water, bone/calcium, and metal/contrast (most radiopaque/white).

  6. What is the inverse square law in radiation, and state its formula?

    Radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source: I1/I2 = (d2)^2/(d1)^2. Doubling the distance reduces intensity to one-quarter.

  7. What are the main mechanisms of X-ray interaction with matter at diagnostic energies?

    Photoelectric effect (dominant at low energy and high atomic number; gives contrast) and Compton scattering (dominant at higher diagnostic energies; main source of scatter and occupational dose). Coherent (Rayleigh) scatter contributes minimally.

  8. On a standard PA chest radiograph, how is correct rotation assessed?

    The medial ends of both clavicles should be equidistant from the spinous process of the adjacent thoracic vertebra; asymmetry indicates patient rotation.

  9. What are the borders of the cardiac silhouette on a frontal chest radiograph?

    Right border: superior vena cava (upper) and right atrium (lower). Left border (top to bottom): aortic knob, main pulmonary artery, left atrial appendage, and left ventricle.

  10. Describe the 'silhouette sign' on chest radiography.

    Loss of a normal interface (border) between two structures of similar density indicates that a lesion abuts that structure. E.g., loss of the right heart border indicates right middle lobe pathology; loss of the right hemidiaphragm indicates right lower lobe pathology.

  11. What is the normal cardiothoracic ratio on a PA chest film, and when is it abnormal?

    The cardiothoracic ratio (maximum cardiac width / maximum internal thoracic width) is normally less than 0.5 on a PA film. Greater than 0.5 suggests cardiomegaly. It is unreliable on AP/portable films, which magnify the heart.

  12. What radiographic features distinguish a tension pneumothorax?

    Lucent hemithorax with absent lung markings, collapsed lung, mediastinal shift away from the affected side, depression/flattening of the ipsilateral hemidiaphragm, and widening of intercostal spaces.

  13. How do you distinguish the small bowel from the large bowel on an abdominal radiograph?

    Small bowel is central, has valvulae conniventes (plicae circulares) crossing the full lumen width, and dilates beyond 3 cm. Large bowel is peripheral, has haustra that do not cross the full width, and dilates beyond 6 cm (caecum beyond 9 cm).

  14. What are the radiographic signs of bowel obstruction versus perforation on a plain abdominal film?

    Obstruction: dilated bowel loops with multiple air-fluid levels on an erect film. Perforation: free intraperitoneal air, seen as gas under the diaphragm on an erect chest film or as Rigler's sign (air on both sides of the bowel wall) supine.

  15. What is the normal radiological anatomy of a long bone?

    Epiphysis (end, near joint), physis (growth plate), metaphysis (flared region adjacent to physis), and diaphysis (shaft). The cortex is dense compact bone; the medulla contains trabecular (cancellous) bone.

  16. What are Salter-Harris fractures and how is the classification structured?

    They classify physeal (growth-plate) injuries in children. Mnemonic SALTR: I = Slip (through physis), II = Above (metaphysis), III = Lower (epiphysis), IV = Through (epiphysis + physis + metaphysis), V = Rammed (crush). Higher types carry greater growth-arrest risk.

  17. What radiographic features differentiate benign from aggressive bone lesions?

    Benign: narrow zone of transition, sclerotic well-defined margin, no/solid periosteal reaction, no soft-tissue mass. Aggressive/malignant: wide zone of transition, ill-defined margins, cortical destruction, lamellated/spiculated ('sunburst') periosteal reaction or Codman triangle, and soft-tissue mass.

  18. What is a barium swallow / upper GI series, and what does it evaluate?

    A fluoroscopic study using ingested barium sulfate contrast to assess the pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum for strictures, ulcers, masses, reflux, hiatus hernia, and motility disorders.

  19. When should water-soluble contrast (e.g., Gastrografin) be used instead of barium in GI studies?

    When perforation or aspiration is suspected, or in the immediate postoperative period, because extravasated barium causes severe peritonitis/mediastinitis, whereas water-soluble contrast is reabsorbed. (Note: aspirated hyperosmolar water-soluble agents can cause pulmonary oedema.)

  20. What is a barium enema and what are its main indications?

    A fluoroscopic examination of the colon and rectum after rectal instillation of barium (single- or double-contrast with air). Indications include colorectal masses/polyps, diverticular disease, strictures, and evaluation of obstruction; largely replaced by CT colonography and colonoscopy.

Show the other 30 Radiology flashcards

  1. What classic barium enema sign is seen in colonic carcinoma?

    The 'apple-core' (or 'napkin-ring') lesion: a short, irregular, circumferential annular constriction with shouldered margins and mucosal destruction, indicating an annular constricting adenocarcinoma.

  2. What is the physical principle behind CT image formation?

    An X-ray tube and detectors rotate around the patient acquiring attenuation profiles from many angles; computer reconstruction (e.g., filtered back projection or iterative reconstruction) produces cross-sectional images of attenuation values.

  3. What is the Hounsfield unit (HU) scale, and what are reference values for water, air, and bone?

    The HU scale quantifies tissue attenuation relative to water. Water = 0 HU, air = -1000 HU, dense cortical bone = +1000 HU or more. Fat is roughly -100 HU, and acute blood is about +50 to +80 HU.

  4. What are 'window width' and 'window level' in CT display?

    Window level (centre) is the HU value displayed as mid-grey; window width is the range of HU values mapped from black to white. Narrow windows increase contrast for similar tissues (e.g., brain), wide windows display a large density range (e.g., lung, bone).

  5. What CT finding indicates an acute (hyperacute) intracranial haemorrhage versus an ischaemic infarct?

    Acute haemorrhage appears hyperdense (bright, ~50-80 HU) on non-contrast CT. Acute ischaemic infarct appears as a hypodense (dark) region with loss of grey-white differentiation, often subtle in the first hours.

  6. How do epidural and subdural haematomas differ on CT?

    Epidural haematoma is biconvex (lens-shaped), does not cross suture lines, and is usually arterial (middle meningeal artery). Subdural haematoma is crescent-shaped (concave), crosses suture lines but not dural reflections, and is usually venous (bridging veins).

  7. What is CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) used for, and what is the key positive finding?

    CTPA is the first-line investigation for pulmonary embolism. The key finding is a filling defect (clot) within a contrast-opacified pulmonary artery; large central clots may straddle the bifurcation ('saddle embolus').

  8. What is the basic physical principle of MRI signal generation?

    Hydrogen protons align with a strong static magnetic field; a radiofrequency pulse tips them out of alignment, and as they relax back they emit RF signals. Spatial encoding by gradient coils and Fourier transformation create the image.

  9. Define T1 and T2 relaxation in MRI.

    T1 (longitudinal/spin-lattice) relaxation is recovery of longitudinal magnetization along the main field. T2 (transverse/spin-spin) relaxation is decay of transverse magnetization due to loss of phase coherence among protons.

  10. How do fat, water, and CSF appear on T1- and T2-weighted MRI?

    On T1: fat is bright, water/CSF is dark. On T2: water/CSF is bright, fat is intermediate-to-bright. A simple rule: 'water is dark on T1 and bright on T2.'

  11. What contrast agent is used in MRI, and what is a major safety concern?

    Gadolinium-based contrast agents shorten T1 (causing enhancement on T1-weighted images). A major concern is nephrogenic systemic fibrosis in patients with severe renal impairment; gadolinium also crosses the placenta and is generally avoided in pregnancy.

  12. What MRI sequence is most sensitive for acute ischaemic stroke and how does infarct appear?

    Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) is most sensitive; acute infarcts show restricted diffusion appearing bright on DWI and dark on the corresponding ADC map within minutes to hours.

  13. Why is MRI superior to CT for musculoskeletal soft tissue, and what is a key contraindication?

    MRI provides excellent soft-tissue contrast for cartilage, ligaments, tendons, menisci, marrow, and tumours without ionizing radiation. A key contraindication is certain ferromagnetic implants/devices (e.g., some pacemakers, cochlear implants, intraocular metallic foreign bodies).

  14. What is the basic physical principle of diagnostic ultrasound imaging?

    A transducer emits high-frequency sound waves (typically 2-15 MHz) into tissue; reflected echoes at tissue interfaces are detected and timed to construct an image. Echo strength depends on acoustic impedance differences between tissues.

  15. What is the trade-off between transducer frequency and ultrasound image quality?

    Higher-frequency probes give better spatial resolution but less tissue penetration (used for superficial structures); lower-frequency probes penetrate deeper with lower resolution (used for deep/abdominal imaging).

  16. Define the ultrasound terms 'anechoic', 'hyperechoic', and 'acoustic shadowing'.

    Anechoic = no internal echoes, appears black (e.g., simple fluid/cyst). Hyperechoic = bright echoes (e.g., gallstones, calcification). Acoustic shadowing = a dark band behind a strongly reflecting/absorbing structure such as a gallstone or bone.

  17. What is the Doppler effect and how is it used in ultrasound?

    The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of reflected sound from moving objects (red blood cells). It is used to assess blood flow direction and velocity (colour and spectral Doppler), e.g., for vascular stenosis, DVT, and fetal circulation.

  18. What are the components of the obstetric biophysical profile and what parameters are measured for fetal dating?

    Biophysical profile: fetal tone, gross body movements, breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and a non-stress test (heart rate reactivity). Early dating uses crown-rump length (most accurate in the first trimester); later parameters include biparietal diameter, head/abdominal circumference, and femur length.

  19. Define the most commonly used radiopharmaceutical in nuclear medicine and its key physical properties.

    Technetium-99m (Tc-99m). It emits 140 keV gamma photons (ideal for gamma cameras), has a 6-hour physical half-life, is produced from a molybdenum-99/Tc-99m generator, and can be tagged to many compounds for organ-specific imaging.

  20. How does a gamma (Anger) camera form an image?

    Gamma photons emitted by an in-vivo radiopharmaceutical pass through a collimator (selecting direction), strike a sodium iodide (NaI(Tl)) scintillation crystal producing light, which photomultiplier tubes convert and localize electronically to build a planar image of tracer distribution.

  21. How does SPECT differ from planar gamma imaging, and how does it relate to PET?

    SPECT (single-photon emission CT) rotates gamma camera heads around the patient to reconstruct 3D tomographic images from single gamma-emitting tracers (e.g., Tc-99m). PET uses positron-emitting tracers (e.g., F-18 FDG) detected by coincidence detection of paired 511 keV annihilation photons, giving higher resolution and quantification.

  22. List the three cardinal principles of radiation protection (ALARA).

    Time (minimize exposure time), Distance (maximize distance from the source, using the inverse square law), and Shielding (use lead/concrete barriers). ALARA = keep dose 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable.'

  23. What is interventional/image-guided drainage, and which modalities guide it?

    Percutaneous placement of a catheter or needle into a fluid collection (e.g., abscess, biliary, urinary) under imaging guidance. Ultrasound, CT, and fluoroscopy are the main guidance modalities; ultrasound is real-time and radiation-free, CT gives precise deep targeting.

  24. What are common minimally invasive tumour ablation techniques and their mechanisms?

    Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) and microwave ablation destroy tissue by heat-induced coagulative necrosis; cryoablation destroys tissue by freezing. They are image-guided alternatives to surgery for small tumours (e.g., liver, kidney, lung).

  25. What is transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) and its main indication?

    TACE delivers chemotherapy directly into the tumour's feeding artery combined with embolic particles that block blood supply, concentrating the drug and inducing ischaemia. It is a key treatment for unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma.

  26. Differentiate the two main delivery methods of radiation therapy.

    External beam radiotherapy (teletherapy) delivers radiation from an external source (e.g., linear accelerator) aimed at the target. Brachytherapy places sealed radioactive sources within or adjacent to the tumour (e.g., cervical, prostate cancer), giving a high local dose with rapid falloff.

  27. What machine delivers most external beam radiotherapy and what does it produce?

    The linear accelerator (LINAC) accelerates electrons to high energy; these strike a target to produce high-energy (megavoltage) X-ray photons, or the electron beam itself is used to treat superficial tumours.

  28. What are the '4 R's' of radiobiology underlying fractionated radiotherapy?

    Repair (of sublethal damage in normal cells between fractions), Reassortment/Redistribution (cells move into radiosensitive phases), Repopulation (regrowth of normal tissue), and Reoxygenation (hypoxic tumour cells become better oxygenated and more radiosensitive).

  29. Define the target volumes used in radiotherapy planning (GTV, CTV, PTV).

    GTV (gross tumour volume): visible/palpable tumour. CTV (clinical target volume): GTV plus a margin for microscopic spread. PTV (planning target volume): CTV plus a margin for setup error and organ/patient motion to ensure the prescribed dose is delivered.

  30. What imaging is used for radiotherapy treatment planning, and what is the SI unit of absorbed dose?

    A planning CT (often fused with MRI/PET) defines anatomy and target volumes and provides electron-density data for dose calculation. The SI unit of absorbed radiation dose is the gray (Gy), where 1 Gy = 1 joule per kilogram.

Same Radiology syllabus in other exams

The Radiology outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

INI CET Radiology FAQ

What is in the INI CET Radiology syllabus?

INI CET Radiology is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Radiology, Radiological Anatomy, Diagnostic Radiography, Fluoroscopy, Computed Tomography (CT), Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), Ultrasound Imaging, Principles of nuclear medicine imaging, Interventional Radiology and Radiation Oncology. Together they contain 26 topics and 69 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in INI CET Radiology?

10 chapters, containing 26 topics and 69 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Radiological Anatomy, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for INI CET Radiology?

Yes — a 50-card Radiology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.