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MBBS Radiology Syllabus

The Radiology syllabus for MBBS in full: 10 chapters, 26 topics and 69 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Radiology flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

26Topics

69Sub-topics

51Flashcards

Radiology syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Introduction to Radiology
2 topics
- History of radiology
  - Evolution of imaging techniques and modalities
- Basics of radiological physics
  - X-ray production
  - Interactions of X-rays with matter
  - Radiation safety
Radiological Anatomy
3 topics
- Radiological anatomy of the chest
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the lungs
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the mediastinum
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the pleura
- Radiological anatomy of the abdomen
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the liver
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the spleen
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the pancreas
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the kidneys
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the urinary tract
- Radiological anatomy of the musculoskeletal system
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the bones
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the joints
  - Normal radiographic anatomy of the soft tissues
Diagnostic Radiography
3 topics
- Chest Radiography
  - Technique
  - Positioning (Posteroanterior, Lateral, and Oblique Views)
  - Interpretation of Common Findings (Pneumonia, Pneumothorax, Pleural Effusion)
- Abdominal Radiography
  - Technique
  - Positioning (Supine, Upright, and Decubitus Views)
  - Interpretation of Common Findings (Intestinal Obstruction, Bowel Perforation, Renal Calculi)
- Skeletal Radiography
  - Technique
  - Positioning (Anteroposterior, Lateral, and Oblique Views)
  - Interpretation of Common Findings (Fractures, Dislocations, Osteoarthritis)
Fluoroscopy
2 topics
- Upper gastrointestinal (GI) series
  - Technique
  - Indications
  - Interpretation of barium swallow studies for evaluation of esophageal and gastric pathology
- Barium enema
  - Technique
  - Indications
  - Interpretation of barium enema studies for evaluation of colorectal pathology
Computed Tomography (CT)
3 topics
- Principles of CT imaging
  - Generation of CT images
  - Contrast enhancement
  - Multiplanar reconstruction
- CT of the head
  - Indications
  - Protocols (non-contrast, contrast-enhanced)
  - Interpretation of findings (intracranial hemorrhage, brain tumors, stroke)
- CT of the chest and abdomen
  - Indications
  - Protocols (contrast-enhanced, multiphase)
  - Interpretation of findings (pulmonary embolism, solid organ injuries, abdominal masses)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
3 topics
- Principles of MRI imaging
  - Generation of MRI images
  - Tissue contrast
  - Pulse sequences (T1-weighted, T2-weighted, diffusion-weighted)
- MRI of the brain and spine
  - Indications
  - Protocols (with and without contrast)
  - Interpretation of findings (brain tumors, spinal cord compression, multiple sclerosis)
- MRI of the musculoskeletal system
  - Indications
  - Protocols (with and without contrast)
  - Interpretation of findings (ligamentous injuries, soft tissue tumors, osteomyelitis)
Ultrasound Imaging
3 topics
- Principles of ultrasound imaging
  - Generation of ultrasound images
  - Transducer types
  - Doppler imaging
- Abdominal ultrasound
  - Indications
  - Techniques (transabdominal, transvaginal)
  - Interpretation of findings (liver cysts, gallstones, renal calculi)
- Obstetric ultrasound
  - Indications
  - Techniques (transabdominal, transvaginal)
  - Interpretation of findings (fetal anatomy, placental abnormalities)
Principles of nuclear medicine imaging
3 topics
- Radiopharmaceuticals
- Gamma cameras
- Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
Interventional Radiology
2 topics
- Image-guided procedures
  - Percutaneous biopsies
  - Drainages
  - Catheter-based interventions
- Minimally invasive therapies
  - Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) for tumor treatment
  - Microwave ablation for tumor treatment
  - Cryoablation for tumor treatment
Radiation Oncology
2 topics
- Principles of radiation therapy
  - External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)
  - Brachytherapy
  - Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)
- Planning and delivery of radiation therapy
  - Treatment planning techniques (CT simulation, treatment planning software)
  - Radiation delivery methods (linear accelerators, gamma knife)

MBBS Radiology flashcards — 51 questions with answers

Who discovered X-rays, and in what year, marking the birth of radiology?
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays on 8 November 1895. He named them "X" rays because their nature was unknown, and he received the first Nobel Prize in Physics (1901) for the discovery.
What was the subject of the first medical X-ray image ever taken?
The hand of Röntgen's wife, Anna Bertha Ludwig, taken in 1895, showing her bones and wedding ring.
Define an X-ray in terms of electromagnetic radiation and typical photon energy used in diagnostic radiology.
X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation (photons) with very short wavelength. Diagnostic X-rays typically have photon energies in the range of about $20$–$150\ \text{keV}$.
What are the two mechanisms by which X-rays are produced at the anode of an X-ray tube?
1) Bremsstrahlung (braking radiation) — electrons decelerate near the nucleus, producing a continuous spectrum. 2) Characteristic radiation — incoming electrons eject inner-shell electrons; outer electrons fill the vacancy, emitting discrete-energy photons.
State the inverse square law for X-ray intensity and give its formula.
X-ray intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source: $$I \propto \frac{1}{d^{2}}$$ Doubling the distance reduces intensity to one quarter.
Name the five basic radiographic densities seen on a plain film, from most radiolucent (black) to most radiopaque (white).
From black to white: 1) Air/gas, 2) Fat, 3) Soft tissue/water, 4) Bone/calcium, 5) Metal (and contrast media).
What physical process is primarily responsible for image contrast in diagnostic X-ray imaging?
The photoelectric effect — its probability is strongly dependent on atomic number (approximately $\propto Z^{3}$) and inversely on photon energy, producing the differential absorption that creates contrast between tissues.
In an X-ray tube, what is the function of the cathode (filament) versus the anode (target)?
The cathode (heated tungsten filament) emits electrons by thermionic emission. The anode (tungsten target) is struck by these accelerated electrons to produce X-rays. Tungsten is used for its high atomic number and high melting point.
Differentiate kVp and mAs in radiography and state what each primarily controls.
kVp (kilovoltage peak) controls the energy/penetrating power and affects image contrast. mAs (milliampere-seconds) controls the quantity (number) of X-ray photons and thus film density/brightness and patient dose.
What is the silhouette sign on a chest radiograph and what does its presence indicate?
The silhouette sign is loss of a normal anatomical border (e.g., the heart or diaphragm) when an adjacent structure of the same radiographic density (fluid/consolidation) lies in contact with it. It helps localize pathology to a specific lobe.
On a normal PA chest radiograph, how do you assess adequate inspiration by counting ribs?
Adequate inspiration is present when the diaphragm is at the level of the anterior 6th rib (or posterior 8th–10th rib) in the midclavicular line.
What forms the right and left heart borders on a frontal chest radiograph?
Right border: superior vena cava (upper) and right atrium (lower). Left border (top to bottom): aortic knob, main pulmonary artery, left atrial appendage, and left ventricle.
Why is a PA (posteroanterior) erect projection preferred over an AP projection for routine chest radiography?
In PA the heart is closer to the detector, minimizing magnification of the cardiac silhouette, and the scapulae are rotated off the lung fields. The erect position also allows detection of air-fluid levels and free subdiaphragmatic air.
How is the cardiothoracic ratio (CTR) measured, and what value suggests cardiomegaly on a PA film?
$$\text{CTR} = \frac{\text{maximum transverse cardiac diameter}}{\text{maximum internal thoracic (chest) diameter}}$$ A CTR greater than $0.5$ on an adequately inspired PA film suggests cardiomegaly.
What radiographic sign indicates pneumoperitoneum (free air) on an erect chest or abdominal film?
Free gas under the diaphragm (subdiaphragmatic free air), typically more visible on the right side beneath the dome of the diaphragm; it indicates a perforated hollow viscus until proven otherwise.
Distinguish the small bowel from the large bowel on a plain abdominal radiograph.
Small bowel: central location, valvulae conniventes (plicae circulares) crossing the full lumen width, diameter normally up to ~3 cm. Large bowel: peripheral, haustra that do not cross the full lumen, may contain faeces, diameter up to ~6 cm (caecum up to ~9 cm).
What are the upper limits of normal bowel diameter used in the "3/6/9 rule" for the abdomen?
3 cm for small bowel, 6 cm for large (colon), and 9 cm for the caecum. Diameters exceeding these suggest obstruction or dilatation.
Differentiate small bowel obstruction from large bowel obstruction on an abdominal radiograph.
Small bowel obstruction: central dilated loops with valvulae conniventes, multiple air-fluid levels, little/no colonic gas. Large bowel obstruction: peripheral dilated loops with haustra, dilated colon, with a competent ileocaecal valve sparing small bowel.
What is the long bone structure terminology: define epiphysis, physis, metaphysis, and diaphysis.
Epiphysis: end of the bone, at the joint. Physis: the growth plate (cartilaginous, lucent in children). Metaphysis: the flared region adjacent to the growth plate. Diaphysis: the central shaft of the long bone.
What is the systematic ABCS approach to reading a musculoskeletal/skeletal radiograph?
A — Alignment (bone alignment and joints). B — Bone density and texture (cortex, trabeculae). C — Cartilage and joint spaces. S — Soft tissues (swelling, effusion, foreign bodies).

Show the other 31 Radiology flashcards

What is a Salter-Harris classification used for, and what does Type II describe?
It classifies growth plate (physeal) fractures in children. Type II — the most common — is a fracture through the physis extending into the metaphysis (the fracture line exits through the metaphysis). Mnemonic SALTR: S=Slipped, A=Above, L=Lower, T=Through, R=Rammed.
What is the difference between an upper GI series and a barium swallow?
A barium swallow evaluates the pharynx and oesophagus. An upper GI series uses orally ingested barium to evaluate the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum (first part of the small bowel).
Which contrast agent should be used instead of barium when GI perforation is suspected, and why?
Water-soluble iodinated contrast (e.g., Gastrografin/diatrizoate) is used because barium leaking into the peritoneum causes severe granulomatous peritonitis. Water-soluble contrast is resorbed safely (but is avoided if aspiration risk because it can cause pulmonary oedema).
What is a double-contrast barium study and what is its advantage?
It uses barium (positive contrast) to coat the mucosa plus gas/air (negative contrast) to distend the lumen. This provides superior mucosal detail, improving detection of small lesions, ulcers, and polyps compared with single-contrast studies.
During a barium enema, what classic sign suggests colorectal carcinoma?
The "apple-core" (or "napkin-ring") sign — an annular constricting lesion with shouldered, irregular margins and a narrowed lumen, characteristic of an annular colonic carcinoma.
List three contraindications to performing a barium enema.
Suspected colonic perforation, toxic megacolon, and recent deep colonic (rectal) biopsy. Acute severe colitis is also a relative contraindication due to perforation risk.
What does CT stand for, and what fundamental principle distinguishes it from plain radiography?
Computed Tomography. It uses a rotating X-ray tube and detector array to acquire multiple projections, which a computer reconstructs into cross-sectional (tomographic) images, eliminating superimposition of structures seen on plain films.
Define the Hounsfield unit (HU) scale, giving the reference values for water and air.
The Hounsfield unit is a normalized measure of X-ray attenuation: $$HU = 1000 \times \frac{\mu_{tissue} - \mu_{water}}{\mu_{water}}$$ By definition, water $= 0\ \text{HU}$ and air $= -1000\ \text{HU}$. Dense bone is around $+1000\ \text{HU}$ or higher.
Give the approximate Hounsfield unit values for fat, acute blood, and bone on CT.
Fat: about $-100$ to $-50\ \text{HU}$. Acute (clotted) blood: about $+50$ to $+80\ \text{HU}$ (hyperdense). Cortical bone: about $+1000\ \text{HU}$ or higher. Simple fluid/water is near $0\ \text{HU}$.
What are window width and window level (window centre) in CT image display?
Window level (centre) is the central HU value displayed as mid-grey; window width is the range of HU values mapped across the grey scale. Narrow windows increase contrast over a small HU range (e.g., brain window), wide windows show a broad range (e.g., lung or bone window).
In CT of the head for acute stroke, how do acute haemorrhage and acute infarction appear?
Acute haemorrhage appears hyperdense (bright/white, ~$50$–$80\ \text{HU}$) immediately. Acute ischaemic infarction appears as subtle hypodensity (dark) with loss of grey–white differentiation, often not obvious in the first few hours.
Differentiate the CT appearance and shape of an epidural versus a subdural haematoma.
Epidural (extradural) haematoma: biconvex/lentiform (lens) shape, does not cross suture lines, often from middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma: crescent (concavoconvex) shape, crosses suture lines but not dural reflections, from bridging veins.
What is the typical iodine-based contrast use in CT of the chest and abdomen, and one major risk?
Intravenous iodinated contrast enhances vessels and organs (e.g., for CT pulmonary angiography or organ characterization). Major risks include contrast-induced nephropathy (renal impairment) and anaphylactoid (allergic) reactions.
On a CT pulmonary angiogram, what finding confirms a pulmonary embolism?
An intraluminal filling defect within a pulmonary artery — a hypodense thrombus surrounded by contrast-opacified (bright) blood, sometimes producing a "polo-mint" or "railway track" sign.
What is the fundamental physical principle underlying MRI signal generation?
Nuclear magnetic resonance: hydrogen protons (in water/fat) align with a strong static magnetic field $B_0$; a radiofrequency pulse tips them out of alignment; as they relax back they emit a radiofrequency signal that is spatially encoded by gradient coils to form an image.
Define T1 and T2 relaxation times in MRI.
T1 (longitudinal/spin-lattice relaxation): time for ~63% recovery of longitudinal magnetization along $B_0$. T2 (transverse/spin-spin relaxation): time for transverse magnetization to decay to ~37% of its initial value due to dephasing.
On MRI, how does fluid (e.g., CSF) appear on T1-weighted versus T2-weighted images?
On T1-weighted images CSF/fluid is dark (low signal/hypointense). On T2-weighted images CSF/fluid is bright (high signal/hyperintense). Mnemonic: "WW2" — Water is White on T2.
How does fat appear on standard T1- and T2-weighted MRI sequences?
Fat is bright (hyperintense) on T1-weighted images and remains relatively bright on conventional (fast/turbo spin-echo) T2-weighted images. Fat-suppression sequences (e.g., STIR) are used to null fat signal.
What MRI contrast agent is most commonly used, and what is its primary safety concern?
Gadolinium-based contrast agents (paramagnetic, shorten T1). The main concern is nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) in patients with severe renal impairment; gadolinium retention is also a consideration.
Why is MRI superior to CT for evaluating the brain and spinal cord and musculoskeletal soft tissues?
MRI provides far superior soft-tissue contrast resolution, multiplanar imaging without ionizing radiation, and excellent differentiation of grey/white matter, ligaments, cartilage, marrow, and cord pathology that CT cannot resolve well.
In MRI of the brain, what does a DWI (diffusion-weighted imaging) sequence detect in acute stroke?
DWI detects restricted diffusion of water in acutely ischaemic (cytotoxic oedema) tissue, appearing bright on DWI and dark on the corresponding ADC map. This is the earliest and most sensitive sign of acute infarction, positive within minutes.
List common absolute MRI contraindications.
Non-MRI-conditional cardiac pacemakers/ICDs, certain cochlear implants, intraocular/intracranial ferromagnetic foreign bodies (e.g., metal shards near the eye), some aneurysm clips, and other ferromagnetic implanted devices. Each device must be checked for MR conditionality.
What is the fundamental physical principle of diagnostic ultrasound imaging?
A piezoelectric transducer emits high-frequency sound waves (typically $2$–$15\ \text{MHz}$) into tissue; reflected echoes at tissue interfaces of differing acoustic impedance return to the transducer and are converted to an image based on echo amplitude and time-of-flight (depth).
Explain the trade-off between ultrasound frequency, resolution, and depth of penetration.
Higher-frequency transducers give better spatial resolution but less tissue penetration (greater attenuation), so they are used for superficial structures. Lower-frequency transducers penetrate deeper (e.g., abdomen) but give lower resolution.
Define the ultrasound terms echogenic (hyperechoic), hypoechoic, and anechoic.
Echogenic/hyperechoic: produces strong echoes, appears bright (e.g., bone, gas, calcification). Hypoechoic: fewer echoes, appears darker than surrounding tissue. Anechoic: no internal echoes, appears black (e.g., simple fluid/cyst, urine, bile).
What is posterior acoustic shadowing versus posterior acoustic enhancement on ultrasound?
Acoustic shadowing: a dark band behind a strongly attenuating/reflecting structure (e.g., gallstone, calcification) that blocks sound. Acoustic enhancement: increased brightness behind a fluid-filled (low-attenuation) structure (e.g., cyst, bladder) because sound is less attenuated.
What is the Doppler effect as applied to ultrasound, and what is it used to assess?
The Doppler effect is the frequency shift of reflected sound caused by moving reflectors (e.g., red blood cells). It is used to detect and quantify blood flow direction and velocity, e.g., in vessels and the heart, with colour and spectral Doppler.
On abdominal ultrasound, what features characterize a simple (benign) renal or hepatic cyst?
Anechoic (black) content, thin/imperceptible smooth wall, well-defined back wall, and posterior acoustic enhancement. Absence of internal septations, solid components, or vascularity supports a benign simple cyst.
What is the typical ultrasound finding of acute cholecystitis?
Gallstones with gallbladder wall thickening (greater than ~3 mm), pericholecystic fluid, and a positive sonographic Murphy sign (maximal tenderness when the transducer presses over the gallbladder). An echogenic stone casts a posterior acoustic shadow.
Why is ultrasound the preferred initial imaging modality in pregnancy and paediatrics?
It uses no ionizing radiation, is real-time, portable, relatively inexpensive, and provides good soft-tissue and fluid characterization, making it safe for the fetus and children.
Rank CT, MRI, ultrasound, and plain radiography by ionizing radiation exposure.
Highest to none: CT (highest radiation dose) > plain radiography (low dose) > ultrasound and MRI (no ionizing radiation). MRI uses magnetic fields/radiofrequency, and ultrasound uses sound waves, so neither involves ionizing radiation.

Same Radiology syllabus in other exams

The Radiology outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

MBBS Radiology FAQ

What is in the MBBS Radiology syllabus?

MBBS Radiology is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Radiology, Radiological Anatomy, Diagnostic Radiography, Fluoroscopy, Computed Tomography (CT), Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), Ultrasound Imaging, Principles of nuclear medicine imaging, Interventional Radiology and Radiation Oncology. Together they contain 26 topics and 69 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in MBBS Radiology?

10 chapters, containing 26 topics and 69 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Radiological Anatomy, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for MBBS Radiology?

Yes — a 51-card Radiology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.