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MBBS Dermatology Syllabus

The Dermatology syllabus for MBBS in full: 10 chapters, 28 topics and 108 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Dermatology flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

28Topics

108Sub-topics

50Flashcards

Dermatology syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Introduction to Dermatology
2 topics
- Anatomy and physiology of the skin
  - Layers of the skin (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue)
  - Appendages (hair, nails, sweat glands)
  - Functions of the skin (protection, thermoregulation, sensation)
- Classification of skin lesions
  - Primary lesions (macule, papule, plaque, nodule, vesicle, bulla)
  - Secondary lesions (scale, crust, erosion, ulcer, atrophy)
Basic Dermatological Procedures
3 topics
- Skin Biopsy
  - Techniques (punch biopsy, shave biopsy, incisional biopsy)
  - Indications
  - Interpretation of histopathological findings
- Patch Testing
  - Diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis
  - Interpretation of patch test results
- Dermoscopy
  - Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of melanocytic lesions
  - Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of non-melanocytic lesions
  - Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of inflammatory skin conditions
Inflammatory Skin Disorders
3 topics
- Psoriasis
  - Clinical features
  - Plaque psoriasis
  - Guttate psoriasis
  - Pustular psoriasis
  - Topical therapy
  - Phototherapy
  - Systemic therapy
- Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
  - Clinical features
  - Acute eczema
  - Subacute eczema
  - Chronic eczema
  - Emollients
  - Topical corticosteroids
  - Calcineurin inhibitors
- Acne Vulgaris
  - Pathogenesis
  - Comedones
  - Papules
  - Pustules
  - Nodules
  - Topical retinoids
  - Benzoyl peroxide
  - Oral antibiotics
Infectious Skin Disorders
3 topics
- Bacterial infections
  - Impetigo
  - Cellulitis
  - Erysipelas
  - Folliculitis
  - Furuncles
  - Carbuncles
- Viral infections
  - Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection
  - Herpes zoster (shingles)
  - Molluscum contagiosum
  - Common warts
  - Plantar warts
- Fungal infections
  - Dermatophytosis
  - Candidiasis
  - Pityriasis versicolor
Autoimmune and Connective Tissue Disorders
3 topics
- Lupus erythematosus
  - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  - Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)
  - Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE)
- Dermatomyositis
  - Clinical features
  - Skin manifestations (heliotrope rash, Gottron's papules)
  - Management
- Scleroderma
  - Localized scleroderma (morphea)
  - Systemic sclerosis (limited cutaneous, diffuse cutaneous)
Pigmentary Disorders
3 topics
- Vitiligo
  - Pathogenesis
  - Clinical features
  - Depigmented macules
  - Patches
  - Topical corticosteroids
  - Phototherapy
- Melasma
  - Clinical features
  - Topical depigmenting agents
  - Chemical peels
- Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation
  - Causes
  - Clinical features
  - Management
Hair and Nail Disorders
3 topics
- Alopecia areata
  - Pathogenesis
  - Clinical features (well-defined patches of non-scarring alopecia)
  - Management (topical corticosteroids, intralesional corticosteroids)
- Androgenetic alopecia
  - Clinical features
  - Pattern of hair loss (male pattern baldness, female pattern hair loss)
  - Management (topical minoxidil, oral finasteride)
- Onychomycosis
  - Fungal nail infection
  - Clinical features (thickened, discolored nails)
  - Management (oral antifungal therapy, topical therapy)
Genodermatoses
2 topics
- Epidermolysis bullosa
  - Clinical features
  - Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
  - Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
  - Wound care
  - Genetic counseling
- Neurofibromatosis
  - Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen disease)
  - Clinical features
  - Management
Skin Cancer
3 topics
- Basal cell carcinoma
  - Clinical features
  - Risk factors
  - Management
- Squamous cell carcinoma
  - Clinical features
  - Risk factors
  - Management
- Melanoma
  - Clinical features
  - Staging
  - Management
Cosmetic Dermatology
3 topics
- Botulinum toxin injections
  - Indications (dynamic wrinkles)
  - Technique
  - Complications
  - Contraindications
- Fillers
  - Hyaluronic acid fillers
  - Calcium hydroxylapatite fillers
  - Poly-L-lactic acid fillers
  - Volume restoration
  - Wrinkle correction
- Chemical peels
  - Superficial peels (alpha hydroxy acids)
  - Medium-depth peels (trichloroacetic acid)
  - Deep peels (phenol)
  - Skin rejuvenation

MBBS Dermatology flashcards — 50 questions with answers

What are the three primary layers of the skin from superficial to deep?
Epidermis (outermost, avascular, stratified squamous epithelium), dermis (connective tissue with vessels, nerves, adnexa), and subcutis/hypodermis (adipose tissue).
Name the five layers (strata) of the epidermis from deep to superficial.
Stratum basale (germinativum), stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum (only in thick skin), and stratum corneum.
What is the approximate epidermal turnover time from basal layer to shedding in normal skin, and how does it change in psoriasis?
Normal transit is roughly 28-30 days; in psoriasis it is dramatically accelerated to about 3-5 days due to keratinocyte hyperproliferation.
Which epidermal cell produces melanin, and which produces keratin?
Melanocytes (in the stratum basale) produce melanin; keratinocytes produce keratin.
What are Langerhans cells and Merkel cells responsible for in the epidermis?
Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting dendritic immune cells; Merkel cells are mechanoreceptors associated with touch sensation.
List the major functions of the skin.
Barrier/protection, thermoregulation, sensation, immune surveillance, vitamin D synthesis, fluid/electrolyte homeostasis, and excretion.
Define the following primary skin lesions: macule, papule, plaque, nodule.
Macule = flat circumscribed color change <1 cm; papule = raised lesion <1 cm; plaque = raised flat-topped lesion >1 cm; nodule = raised solid lesion >1 cm extending into dermis.
Differentiate a vesicle, bulla, and pustule.
Vesicle = fluid-filled blister <1 cm; bulla = fluid-filled blister >1 cm; pustule = lesion filled with purulent material (pus).
Define wheal and how it differs from a typical papule.
A wheal is a transient, edematous, raised lesion (e.g., in urticaria) that is evanescent (resolves within hours), unlike a persistent papule.
Distinguish secondary lesions: erosion vs. ulcer.
An erosion is loss of epidermis only and heals without scarring; an ulcer is loss of epidermis plus part/all of dermis and heals with scarring.
What are the main types of skin biopsy and their typical indications?
Shave biopsy (superficial/exophytic lesions), punch biopsy (full-thickness, inflammatory dermatoses), and excisional/incisional biopsy (deep lesions, suspected melanoma, panniculitis).
Why is excisional rather than shave biopsy preferred for suspected melanoma?
Full-thickness excision allows accurate measurement of Breslow depth (tumor thickness), which is the key prognostic factor; shave biopsy may transect the lesion and understage it.
What is patch testing used to diagnose, and what hypersensitivity reaction does it detect?
It diagnoses allergic contact dermatitis, detecting a Type IV (delayed, cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reaction.
In patch testing, when are readings typically taken?
Patches are applied for 48 hours, then read at 48 hours (removal) and again at 72-96 hours (delayed reactions).
What is dermoscopy and what advantage does it provide?
Dermoscopy is a non-invasive technique using a handheld magnifier with polarized/immersion light to visualize subsurface skin structures, improving diagnostic accuracy for pigmented and other lesions.
What dermoscopic features raise concern for melanoma?
Atypical pigment network, irregular streaks/pseudopods, blue-white veil, irregular dots/globules, and asymmetric color/structure distribution.
What is the characteristic pathophysiology of psoriasis?
T-cell (Th1/Th17) mediated immune dysregulation causing keratinocyte hyperproliferation, accelerated epidermal turnover, parakeratosis, and dermal inflammation/angiogenesis.
Describe the classic clinical lesion of chronic plaque psoriasis and its typical distribution.
Well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery-white scale, typically on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees), scalp, and sacrum.
What are the Auspitz sign and Koebner phenomenon in psoriasis?
Auspitz sign = pinpoint bleeding when scale is removed; Koebner phenomenon = development of new lesions at sites of trauma.
Name the nail changes commonly seen in psoriasis.
Pitting, onycholysis, oil-drop (salmon) spots, and subungual hyperkeratosis.

Show the other 30 Dermatology flashcards

What is the pathophysiology and classic distribution of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?
Filaggrin gene mutation with skin barrier dysfunction and Th2-driven inflammation; flexural distribution (antecubital/popliteal fossae) in children/adults, face and extensors in infants.
What is the atopic triad?
Atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis (hay fever), and asthma.
What are the four key pathogenic factors in acne vulgaris?
Follicular hyperkeratinization, increased sebum production (androgen-driven), Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes proliferation, and inflammation.
Differentiate the non-inflammatory and inflammatory lesions of acne.
Non-inflammatory: open comedones (blackheads) and closed comedones (whiteheads). Inflammatory: papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts.
What is the first-line oral agent for severe nodulocystic acne, and a key teratogenic precaution?
Oral isotretinoin; it is highly teratogenic, requiring strict contraception and pregnancy testing (e.g., iPLEDGE-type monitoring).
Name the bacterial cause and classic lesion of impetigo.
Staphylococcus aureus (and/or Streptococcus pyogenes); classic non-bullous impetigo shows honey-colored (golden) crusts.
Differentiate erysipelas from cellulitis.
Erysipelas involves the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics with a sharply demarcated, raised border (usually Strep pyogenes); cellulitis involves the deeper dermis and subcutis with poorly defined borders.
What organism causes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) and what mediates the skin separation?
Staphylococcus aureus producing exfoliative (epidermolytic) toxins that cleave desmoglein-1, causing superficial intraepidermal separation.
What virus causes molluscum contagiosum and what is the characteristic lesion?
A poxvirus (Molluscum contagiosum virus); lesions are dome-shaped, pearly papules with central umbilication.
Differentiate herpes simplex (HSV) primary infection from herpes zoster.
HSV causes grouped vesicles on an erythematous base (orolabial/genital), reactivating from sensory ganglia; herpes zoster (shingles) is VZV reactivation causing a painful dermatomal vesicular eruption.
What virus causes warts (verrucae) and what histologic feature is characteristic?
Human papillomavirus (HPV); koilocytes (vacuolated keratinocytes) are characteristic.
Name the common dermatophytes causing tinea infections and the diagnostic test.
Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton; diagnosed by KOH (potassium hydroxide) preparation showing septate hyphae.
What organism causes pityriasis (tinea) versicolor and what is its KOH appearance?
Malassezia furfur (yeast); KOH shows a 'spaghetti and meatballs' pattern of short hyphae and round spores.
What is the causative organism of cutaneous candidiasis and a typical clinical feature?
Candida albicans; intertriginous erythema with satellite pustules/papules in skin folds.
What autoantibodies are most specific/sensitive for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith (anti-Sm) are most specific; ANA is most sensitive (screening).
Describe the classic cutaneous feature of acute cutaneous lupus and the lesion of discoid lupus.
Acute: malar (butterfly) rash sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus: well-defined erythematous plaques with adherent scale, follicular plugging, and scarring/atrophy.
What histopathologic/immunofluorescence finding supports lupus skin involvement?
Interface (vacuolar) dermatitis with a positive lupus band test (granular IgG/IgM and C3 deposition at the dermoepidermal junction).
List the hallmark cutaneous signs of dermatomyositis.
Heliotrope rash (violaceous periorbital edema), Gottron papules (over MCP/IP joints), shawl sign, V-sign, and periungual telangiectasia.
What muscle enzyme elevations and antibodies are associated with dermatomyositis?
Elevated creatine kinase (CK) and aldolase; anti-Jo-1 (associated with interstitial lung disease) and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
Why is dermatomyositis clinically important to investigate beyond the skin and muscle?
It is associated with an increased risk of underlying internal malignancy, warranting age-appropriate cancer screening.
Differentiate limited from diffuse systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).
Limited (CREST) has skin involvement distal to elbows/knees and face with anti-centromere antibodies; diffuse has widespread proximal skin involvement with anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) and higher risk of early internal organ disease.
What does the CREST acronym in limited scleroderma stand for?
Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
What is the pathophysiology of vitiligo?
Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes, producing well-demarcated depigmented (chalk-white) macules and patches.
What examination tool accentuates vitiligo lesions and how do they appear?
Wood's lamp (UVA light); depigmented patches show bright blue-white fluorescence with sharp accentuation, especially in fair skin.
What is melasma and what factors commonly trigger or worsen it?
Acquired symmetrical hyperpigmentation, typically facial; triggered/worsened by UV exposure, pregnancy ('chloasma'), and hormones (OCPs/estrogen).
What is the first-line topical depigmenting agent for melasma and a common triple-combination?
Hydroquinone; the classic triple combination is hydroquinone + tretinoin + a topical corticosteroid (Kligman's formula), plus strict photoprotection.
What is post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH) and the mechanism?
Acquired excess melanin (or dermal melanin deposition) following cutaneous inflammation or injury (e.g., acne, eczema), due to stimulated melanocyte activity and pigment incontinence into the dermis.
What is the characteristic clinical presentation of alopecia areata?
Sudden, well-circumscribed patches of non-scarring hair loss, often with 'exclamation mark' hairs at the margins.
What is the underlying mechanism of alopecia areata and a common nail finding?
T-cell mediated autoimmune attack on hair follicles (loss of immune privilege); nail pitting is a common associated finding.
Define alopecia totalis and alopecia universalis.
Alopecia totalis = complete loss of all scalp hair; alopecia universalis = loss of all body and scalp hair.

Same Dermatology syllabus in other exams

The Dermatology outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

MBBS Dermatology FAQ

What is in the MBBS Dermatology syllabus?

MBBS Dermatology is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Dermatology, Basic Dermatological Procedures, Inflammatory Skin Disorders, Infectious Skin Disorders, Autoimmune and Connective Tissue Disorders, Pigmentary Disorders, Hair and Nail Disorders, Genodermatoses, Skin Cancer and Cosmetic Dermatology. Together they contain 28 topics and 108 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in MBBS Dermatology?

10 chapters, containing 28 topics and 108 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Basic Dermatological Procedures, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for MBBS Dermatology?

Yes — a 50-card Dermatology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.