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🇮🇳 NEET PG · subject

NEET PG Dermatology Syllabus

The Dermatology syllabus for NEET PG in full: 10 chapters, 28 topics and 108 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Dermatology flashcards with answers.

10Chapters
28Topics
108Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Dermatology syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Introduction to Dermatology

     2 topics
    • Anatomy and physiology of the skin
      • Layers of the skin (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue)
      • Appendages (hair, nails, sweat glands)
      • Functions of the skin (protection, thermoregulation, sensation)
    • Classification of skin lesions
      • Primary lesions (macule, papule, plaque, nodule, vesicle, bulla)
      • Secondary lesions (scale, crust, erosion, ulcer, atrophy)

  2. Basic Dermatological Procedures

     3 topics
    • Skin Biopsy
      • Techniques (punch biopsy, shave biopsy, incisional biopsy)
      • Indications
      • Interpretation of histopathological findings
    • Patch Testing
      • Diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis
      • Interpretation of patch test results
    • Dermoscopy
      • Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of melanocytic lesions
      • Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of non-melanocytic lesions
      • Use of dermoscopy for the diagnosis of inflammatory skin conditions

  3. Inflammatory Skin Disorders

     3 topics
    • Psoriasis
      • Clinical features
      • Plaque psoriasis
      • Guttate psoriasis
      • Pustular psoriasis
      • Topical therapy
      • Phototherapy
      • Systemic therapy
    • Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
      • Clinical features
      • Acute eczema
      • Subacute eczema
      • Chronic eczema
      • Emollients
      • Topical corticosteroids
      • Calcineurin inhibitors
    • Acne Vulgaris
      • Pathogenesis
      • Comedones
      • Papules
      • Pustules
      • Nodules
      • Topical retinoids
      • Benzoyl peroxide
      • Oral antibiotics

  4. Infectious Skin Disorders

     3 topics
    • Bacterial infections
      • Impetigo
      • Cellulitis
      • Erysipelas
      • Folliculitis
      • Furuncles
      • Carbuncles
    • Viral infections
      • Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection
      • Herpes zoster (shingles)
      • Molluscum contagiosum
      • Common warts
      • Plantar warts
    • Fungal infections
      • Dermatophytosis
      • Candidiasis
      • Pityriasis versicolor

  5. Autoimmune and Connective Tissue Disorders

     3 topics
    • Lupus erythematosus
      • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
      • Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)
      • Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE)
    • Dermatomyositis
      • Clinical features
      • Skin manifestations (heliotrope rash, Gottron's papules)
      • Management
    • Scleroderma
      • Localized scleroderma (morphea)
      • Systemic sclerosis (limited cutaneous, diffuse cutaneous)

  6. Pigmentary Disorders

     3 topics
    • Vitiligo
      • Pathogenesis
      • Clinical features
      • Depigmented macules
      • Patches
      • Topical corticosteroids
      • Phototherapy
    • Melasma
      • Clinical features
      • Topical depigmenting agents
      • Chemical peels
    • Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation
      • Causes
      • Clinical features
      • Management

  7. Hair and Nail Disorders

     3 topics
    • Alopecia areata
      • Pathogenesis
      • Clinical features (well-defined patches of non-scarring alopecia)
      • Management (topical corticosteroids, intralesional corticosteroids)
    • Androgenetic alopecia
      • Clinical features
      • Pattern of hair loss (male pattern baldness, female pattern hair loss)
      • Management (topical minoxidil, oral finasteride)
    • Onychomycosis
      • Fungal nail infection
      • Clinical features (thickened, discolored nails)
      • Management (oral antifungal therapy, topical therapy)

  8. Genodermatoses

     2 topics
    • Epidermolysis bullosa
      • Clinical features
      • Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
      • Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
      • Wound care
      • Genetic counseling
    • Neurofibromatosis
      • Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen disease)
      • Clinical features
      • Management

  9. Skin Cancer

     3 topics
    • Basal cell carcinoma
      • Clinical features
      • Risk factors
      • Management
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
      • Clinical features
      • Risk factors
      • Management
    • Melanoma
      • Clinical features
      • Staging
      • Management

  10. Cosmetic Dermatology

     3 topics
    • Botulinum toxin injections
      • Indications (dynamic wrinkles)
      • Technique
      • Complications
      • Contraindications
    • Fillers
      • Hyaluronic acid fillers
      • Calcium hydroxylapatite fillers
      • Poly-L-lactic acid fillers
      • Volume restoration
      • Wrinkle correction
    • Chemical peels
      • Superficial peels (alpha hydroxy acids)
      • Medium-depth peels (trichloroacetic acid)
      • Deep peels (phenol)
      • Skin rejuvenation

NEET PG Dermatology flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. Name the three main layers of the skin from superficial to deep.

    Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis).

  2. List the five layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial.

    Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum (only in thick skin), and stratum corneum.

  3. Which epidermal cell produces melanin, and where do these cells reside?

    Melanocytes, located in the stratum basale; they transfer melanin to keratinocytes via melanosomes.

  4. Name the antigen-presenting dendritic cell of the epidermis and its characteristic organelle.

    Langerhans cell; its characteristic organelle is the Birbeck granule (tennis-racket shaped).

  5. Differentiate a macule from a papule.

    A macule is a flat, circumscribed change in skin color <1 cm (no elevation); a papule is a solid, elevated lesion <1 cm.

  6. Define a vesicle versus a bulla.

    A vesicle is a fluid-filled blister <1 cm; a bulla is a fluid-filled blister >1 cm.

  7. What is the difference between a patch and a plaque?

    A patch is a flat lesion >1 cm (large macule); a plaque is an elevated, palpable lesion >1 cm (often a confluence of papules).

  8. What is the difference between a wheal and a nodule?

    A wheal is a transient, edematous, raised lesion (urticaria); a nodule is a solid, palpable lesion >1 cm extending into the dermis or subcutis.

  9. Which type of skin biopsy is best for evaluating panniculitis or deep dermal/subcutaneous disease?

    An incisional (or excisional) biopsy down to subcutaneous fat; a punch biopsy of adequate depth (4-6 mm) can also reach subcutis.

  10. What is the purpose of a shave biopsy and when is it inappropriate?

    Shave biopsy samples superficial lesions (e.g., BCC, seborrheic keratosis); it is inappropriate for suspected melanoma because it may not capture full Breslow depth.

  11. What is patch testing used to diagnose, and when are readings taken?

    It diagnoses allergic contact dermatitis (type IV delayed hypersensitivity); readings are taken at 48 hours (after removal) and again at 72-96 hours.

  12. Differentiate the mechanism behind patch testing from a prick test.

    Patch testing detects type IV (delayed, cell-mediated) hypersensitivity; prick testing detects type I (immediate, IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity.

  13. What is dermoscopy and what key advantage does it provide?

    A non-invasive in-vivo technique using a handheld magnifier with light to visualize subsurface skin structures; it improves diagnostic accuracy for pigmented lesions and melanoma.

  14. What dermoscopic features suggest melanoma?

    Atypical pigment network, irregular streaks/pseudopods, blue-white veil, irregular dots/globules, and asymmetry of color and structure.

  15. What is the characteristic histopathology of psoriasis?

    Parakeratosis, Munro microabscesses (neutrophils in stratum corneum), regular elongation of rete ridges, thinned suprapapillary plates, and dilated dermal capillaries.

  16. Name the two classic clinical signs of psoriasis and what they represent.

    Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding on scale removal due to dilated papillary capillaries) and Koebner phenomenon (lesions at sites of trauma).

  17. What is the first-line systemic agent for severe plaque psoriasis, and a key biologic target class?

    Methotrexate is a first-line systemic agent; biologics target TNF-alpha (e.g., adalimumab), IL-17 (secukinumab), and IL-23 (guselkumab).

  18. What is the underlying barrier defect and key gene in atopic dermatitis?

    Impaired epidermal barrier from filaggrin (FLG) gene loss-of-function mutations, leading to transepidermal water loss and allergen entry.

  19. Describe the typical distribution of atopic dermatitis in infants versus older children/adults.

    Infants: face, scalp, and extensor surfaces; older children and adults: flexural areas (antecubital and popliteal fossae).

  20. What is the 'atopic triad'?

    Atopic dermatitis (eczema), allergic rhinitis, and asthma.

Show the other 31 Dermatology flashcards

  1. Name the four pathogenic factors in acne vulgaris.

    Follicular hyperkeratinization, increased sebum production (androgen-driven), Cutibacterium acnes colonization, and inflammation.

  2. What is the most effective treatment for severe nodulocystic acne, and a major adverse effect to monitor?

    Oral isotretinoin; it is teratogenic (requires pregnancy prevention) and can cause hypertriglyceridemia and elevated transaminases.

  3. What organism causes impetigo and what is the classic finding of bullous impetigo?

    Staphylococcus aureus (and Streptococcus pyogenes for non-bullous); bullous impetigo is caused by S. aureus exfoliative toxin producing flaccid bullae and honey-colored crust.

  4. Differentiate erysipelas from cellulitis.

    Erysipelas involves the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics with sharply demarcated raised borders (usually Strep pyogenes); cellulitis involves deeper dermis/subcutis with ill-defined borders.

  5. What virus causes molluscum contagiosum and what is its hallmark lesion?

    A poxvirus (Molluscum contagiosum virus); hallmark is dome-shaped, umbilicated, flesh-colored papules with Henderson-Paterson bodies on histology.

  6. Differentiate herpes simplex from herpes zoster in distribution.

    HSV causes grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, often perioral/genital and recurrent; herpes zoster (VZV reactivation) is unilateral and follows a single dermatome.

  7. What is the diagnostic test (bedside) for herpes virus infections and what does it show?

    Tzanck smear; it shows multinucleated giant cells.

  8. What is the causative organism of tinea (dermatophytosis) and the diagnostic bedside test?

    Dermatophytes (Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton); KOH mount of skin scrapings shows septate branching hyphae.

  9. What organism causes pityriasis (tinea) versicolor and what is its KOH appearance?

    Malassezia furfur; KOH shows a 'spaghetti and meatballs' appearance (short hyphae with round spores).

  10. What is the most specific cutaneous sign and the most common rash of systemic lupus erythematosus?

    Most specific cutaneous lesion: discoid lupus; most common is the malar (butterfly) rash sparing the nasolabial folds.

  11. Which autoantibodies are most specific for SLE?

    Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) and anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies.

  12. Name the two pathognomonic cutaneous signs of dermatomyositis.

    Gottron papules (violaceous papules over knuckles/MCP and PIP joints) and the heliotrope rash (violaceous periorbital edema).

  13. Which autoantibody in dermatomyositis is associated with increased malignancy risk?

    Anti-TIF1-gamma (anti-p155/140) antibodies.

  14. Differentiate limited from diffuse systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).

    Limited (CREST) involves skin distal to elbows/knees plus face, with anti-centromere antibodies; diffuse involves proximal skin and trunk with anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) and higher organ involvement.

  15. What does the CREST syndrome acronym stand for?

    Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.

  16. What is the pathogenesis of vitiligo and its histologic hallmark?

    Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes; histology shows absence of melanocytes in affected epidermis.

  17. What examination tool accentuates vitiligo patches and how do they appear?

    Wood's lamp; vitiligo patches show bright blue-white (chalk-white) fluorescence with sharp margins.

  18. What is melasma and what are its main triggers?

    An acquired symmetric hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed areas (face); triggers include UV exposure, pregnancy (chloasma), oral contraceptives, and genetic/hormonal factors.

  19. What is the gold-standard topical treatment for melasma?

    Triple combination cream (Kligman's formula): hydroquinone + tretinoin + a topical corticosteroid, plus strict photoprotection.

  20. What causes post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation and how does dermal versus epidermal pigment differ in treatment?

    Excess melanin after inflammation/injury; epidermal pigment (brown) responds to topical lighteners, whereas dermal pigment (blue-gray) is more resistant and may need lasers.

  21. What is the characteristic clinical sign and hair finding in alopecia areata?

    Well-demarcated round patches of nonscarring hair loss with 'exclamation mark' hairs at the margins.

  22. What hormone and enzyme drive androgenetic alopecia, and name two evidence-based treatments.

    Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), produced by 5-alpha-reductase; treatments are topical minoxidil and oral finasteride (a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor).

  23. What is onychomycosis, the most common causative organism, and a first-line oral therapy?

    Fungal nail infection, most commonly by Trichophyton rubrum; first-line oral therapy is terbinafine.

  24. What is epidermolysis bullosa and what distinguishes the simplex, junctional, and dystrophic types?

    A group of inherited blistering disorders from skin fragility; simplex (keratin 5/14, intraepidermal), junctional (laminin-332, at lamina lucida), and dystrophic (type VII collagen, below lamina densa, scarring).

  25. List the diagnostic cutaneous features of neurofibromatosis type 1.

    Six or more cafe-au-lait macules, axillary/inguinal freckling (Crowe sign), neurofibromas, and Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas).

  26. What is the most common skin cancer, its typical clinical appearance, and metastatic potential?

    Basal cell carcinoma; a pearly papule with rolled borders, telangiectasias, and central ulceration; it rarely metastasizes but is locally invasive.

  27. What are key risk factors and the histologic hallmark of squamous cell carcinoma?

    Chronic UV exposure, immunosuppression, HPV, and chronic wounds/scars (Marjolin ulcer); histology shows atypical keratinocytes with keratin pearls; it has higher metastatic potential than BCC.

  28. What is the most important prognostic factor in melanoma, and what does the ABCDE rule stand for?

    Breslow thickness (tumor depth) is the most important prognostic factor; ABCDE = Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolution.

  29. What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin in cosmetic use, and how long do effects typically last?

    It blocks acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction (cleaving SNARE protein SNAP-25), causing temporary muscle paralysis; effects last about 3-4 months.

  30. What is the most common dermal filler material and the most feared serious complication?

    Hyaluronic acid (reversible with hyaluronidase); the most feared complication is vascular occlusion causing skin necrosis or blindness.

  31. Classify chemical peels by depth and give an agent for each.

    Superficial (glycolic acid, salicylic acid, 10-30% TCA), medium (35-50% TCA, Jessner's solution), and deep (phenol/Baker-Gordon solution).

Same Dermatology syllabus in other exams

The Dermatology outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

NEET PG Dermatology FAQ

What is in the NEET PG Dermatology syllabus?

NEET PG Dermatology is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Dermatology, Basic Dermatological Procedures, Inflammatory Skin Disorders, Infectious Skin Disorders, Autoimmune and Connective Tissue Disorders, Pigmentary Disorders, Hair and Nail Disorders, Genodermatoses, Skin Cancer and Cosmetic Dermatology. Together they contain 28 topics and 108 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NEET PG Dermatology?

10 chapters, containing 28 topics and 108 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Basic Dermatological Procedures, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for NEET PG Dermatology?

Yes — a 51-card Dermatology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.