🇮🇳 NEET PG · subject

NEET PG Orthopaedics Syllabus

The Orthopaedics syllabus for NEET PG in full: 10 chapters, 30 topics and 107 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 53 Orthopaedics flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

30Topics

107Sub-topics

53Flashcards

Orthopaedics syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

General Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Introduction to Orthopaedics
  - History, scope, and importance in medical practice
- Basic Principles of Orthopaedic Examination
  - History taking
  - Physical examination
  - Assessment of musculoskeletal function
- Imaging Modalities in Orthopaedics
  - X-ray
  - CT scan
  - MRI
  - Ultrasound
  - Nuclear medicine imaging
Trauma and Fractures
4 topics
- Classification of fractures
  - Open vs. closed fractures
  - Displaced vs. nondisplaced fractures
  - Complete vs. incomplete fractures
- Principles of fracture management
  - Closed reduction
  - Open reduction
  - Internal fixation
  - External fixation
  - Plaster immobilization
- Complications of fractures
  - Delayed union
  - Nonunion
  - Malunion
  - Compartment syndrome
  - Infection
- Fracture healing
  - Phases of fracture healing
  - Factors influencing healing
  - Principles of fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb
3 topics
- Shoulder disorders
  - Rotator cuff injuries
  - Shoulder dislocation
  - Adhesive capsulitis
  - Shoulder impingement syndrome
- Elbow disorders
  - Tennis elbow
  - Golfer's elbow
  - Elbow instability
- Hand and wrist disorders
  - Carpal tunnel syndrome
  - Trigger finger
  - Dupuytren's contracture
  - De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb
3 topics
- Hip disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - avascular necrosis of the hip
  - hip fractures
  - hip dysplasia
- Knee disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - meniscal injuries
  - ligamentous injuries (ACL, PCL)
  - patellofemoral syndrome
- Ankle and foot disorders
  - Ankle sprain
  - Achilles tendon rupture
  - plantar fasciitis
  - hallux valgus (bunion)
Pediatric Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
  - Screening
  - Diagnosis
  - Management of DDH in infants and children
- Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
  - Classification
  - Ponseti method
  - Surgical correction
- Developmental disorders of the spine
  - Scoliosis
  - Kyphosis
  - Congenital vertebral anomalies
Orthopaedic Oncology
3 topics
- Primary Bone Tumors
  - Osteosarcoma
  - Chondrosarcoma
  - Ewing's Sarcoma
  - Giant Cell Tumor
- Metastatic Bone Disease
  - Pathophysiology
  - Clinical Presentation
  - Management of Bone Metastases
- Soft Tissue Tumors
  - Lipoma
  - Fibroma
  - Synovial Sarcoma
  - Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma
Sports Medicine
3 topics
- Sports-related injuries
  - Muscle strains
  - Ligament sprains
  - Tendonitis
  - Stress fractures
- Overuse injuries
  - Runner's knee
  - Shin splints
  - Tennis elbow
  - Stress fractures
- Rehabilitation and return to play
  - Physiotherapy
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Gradual progression of activities
Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy
3 topics
- Principles of orthopaedic rehabilitation
  - Range of motion exercises
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Proprioceptive training
- Modalities in orthopaedic physiotherapy
  - Heat therapy
  - Cold therapy
  - Ultrasound therapy
  - Electrical stimulation
  - Traction
- Postoperative rehabilitation
  - Rehabilitation protocols following orthopaedic surgeries
  - Joint replacement
  - Ligament reconstruction
  - Fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques
3 topics
- Arthroscopic Surgery
  - Indications
  - Techniques
  - Complications of arthroscopic procedures in various joints
- Joint Replacement Surgery
  - Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
  - Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
  - Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (TSA)
- Spinal Surgery
  - Decompression Procedures
  - Spinal Fusion
  - Instrumentation Techniques in the Management of Spinal Disorders
Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice
2 topics
- Basics of orthopaedic research
  - Study design
  - Data collection
  - Statistical analysis
  - Interpretation of research findings
- Evidence-based orthopaedics
  - Critical appraisal of research literature
  - Application of evidence-based guidelines
  - Practice-based learning

NEET PG Orthopaedics flashcards — 53 questions with answers

What is the difference between orthopaedics as a specialty and its original etymological meaning?
Orthopaedics derives from Greek 'orthos' (straight) and 'paidion' (child), originally meaning correction of deformities in children; today it is the surgical and medical specialty dealing with the entire musculoskeletal system (bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, muscles, nerves) in all ages.
In orthopaedic examination, what does the 'Look, Feel, Move' sequence refer to?
It is the standard inspection order: Look (inspection for swelling, deformity, scars, wasting, attitude), Feel (palpation for tenderness, warmth, crepitus, effusion), and Move (active then passive range of motion, plus special tests).
What is the difference between a true leg length and an apparent leg length measurement?
True length is measured from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the medial malleolus and reflects real bone shortening; apparent length is measured from a fixed midline point (umbilicus/xiphisternum) to the medial malleolus and reflects shortening due to pelvic tilt or fixed adduction/abduction deformity.
What does a positive Trendelenburg test indicate?
When standing on the affected leg, the pelvis drops on the opposite (unsupported) side, indicating weakness or insufficiency of the hip abductors (gluteus medius/minimus), as seen in superior gluteal nerve palsy, DDH, or hip arthritis.
In orthopaedic imaging, why is the 'rule of twos' applied to plain radiographs?
Always obtain two views (usually at right angles, e.g., AP and lateral), include the two joints (above and below a long-bone fracture), at two times if needed (repeat films), and compare with the opposite side in two limbs in children.
Which imaging modality is the investigation of choice for soft tissue, ligament, cartilage, and bone marrow pathology in orthopaedics?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), due to its superior soft-tissue contrast for menisci, ligaments, cartilage, marrow oedema, osteomyelitis, and tumours.
What is the best imaging modality for assessing complex fracture geometry and cortical bone detail?
CT scan, which provides detailed bony anatomy and is used for intra-articular, pelvic, spinal, and comminuted fractures, often with 3D reconstruction for preoperative planning.
Define a 'greenstick' fracture and in whom it typically occurs.
An incomplete fracture in which one cortex breaks and the other bends (buckles); it occurs in children because their bones are softer and more elastic than adult bone.
What is the difference between a simple (closed) and a compound (open) fracture?
In a closed fracture the overlying skin is intact; in an open (compound) fracture the bone communicates with the external environment through a skin breach, greatly increasing the risk of infection.
What does the Gustilo-Anderson classification grade, and what distinguishes type III?
It grades open fractures by wound size and soft-tissue/contamination severity. Type I <1 cm clean; Type II 1–10 cm moderate soft-tissue damage; Type III >10 cm or severe — IIIA adequate soft-tissue coverage, IIIB extensive periosteal stripping needing flap, IIIC associated arterial injury requiring repair.
What does the Salter-Harris classification describe, and what is the mnemonic for its five types?
It classifies physeal (growth-plate) fractures in children. Mnemonic SALTR: I = Slipped (through physis), II = Above (metaphysis, most common), III = Lower (epiphysis), IV = Through (metaphysis+physis+epiphysis), V = Rammed/cRush (compression of physis, worst prognosis).
State the four R's that summarise the principles of fracture management.
Resuscitation (and recognition), Reduction (restore alignment), Retention/Restriction (immobilise/hold the reduction), and Rehabilitation (restore function).
What is the difference between closed reduction and open reduction of a fracture?
Closed reduction restores alignment by manipulation without surgically exposing the fracture; open reduction surgically exposes the fracture to align fragments directly, usually combined with internal fixation (ORIF).
What does the AO principle of 'absolute stability' produce in terms of bone healing?
Absolute stability (anatomical reduction with interfragmentary compression, e.g., lag screw + plate) produces primary (direct) bone healing with no visible callus, via cutting cones and Haversian remodelling.
Name the components and timing of the four stages of secondary fracture healing.
1) Haematoma/inflammation (hours–days), 2) Soft callus / fibrocartilage formation (days–weeks), 3) Hard callus / bony callus by endochondral and intramembranous ossification (weeks), 4) Remodelling (months–years) restoring lamellar bone along stress lines per Wolff's law.
What is the difference between primary and secondary fracture healing?
Primary (direct) healing occurs under absolute stability with rigid fixation, with no callus, via Haversian remodelling across the gap. Secondary (indirect) healing occurs with relative stability/micromotion and proceeds through callus formation and endochondral ossification.
Define delayed union, non-union, and malunion.
Delayed union: fracture takes longer than expected to unite but is still progressing. Non-union: union has failed and healing has stopped (atrophic = poor vascularity; hypertrophic = excessive motion with good vascularity). Malunion: fracture heals in an unacceptable position (angulation, rotation, shortening).
What is compartment syndrome and what are its classic early clinical signs?
A surgical emergency where raised pressure within a fascial compartment compromises perfusion. Earliest and most reliable sign is pain out of proportion and pain on passive stretch; the '6 Ps' (pain, pallor, paraesthesia, paralysis, pulselessness, poikilothermia) appear later — pulselessness is a late, ominous sign. Treatment is urgent fasciotomy.
What is Volkmann's ischaemic contracture and which injury classically causes it?
A permanent flexion contracture of the hand and wrist from ischaemic necrosis of forearm muscles following untreated compartment syndrome, classically after a supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children injuring the brachial artery.
What is fat embolism syndrome and its classic triad?
A complication usually 24–72 hours after long-bone or pelvic fractures, where fat globules enter circulation. Classic triad: respiratory distress (hypoxia), neurological changes (confusion), and a petechial rash (axilla, conjunctiva, chest).

Show the other 33 Orthopaedics flashcards

Which nerve is most commonly injured in a surgical neck of humerus fracture or anterior shoulder dislocation, and what is the deficit?
The axillary nerve, causing deltoid weakness (impaired abduction) and loss of sensation over the 'regimental badge' area of the lateral shoulder.
What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation and the classic mechanism?
Anterior (subcoracoid) dislocation, accounting for ~95% of cases, typically from a fall on an abducted, externally rotated, extended arm; associated lesions include Bankart (anteroinferior labrum) and Hill-Sachs (posterolateral humeral head).
Which muscles form the rotator cuff and which one is most commonly torn?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis (mnemonic SITS). The supraspinatus is the most commonly torn, typically in subacromial impingement.
What is the difference between lateral and medial epicondylitis of the elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis ('tennis elbow') is tendinopathy of the common extensor origin (extensor carpi radialis brevis), with pain on resisted wrist extension. Medial epicondylitis ('golfer's elbow') affects the common flexor origin, with pain on resisted wrist flexion/pronation.
Which nerve runs in the cubital tunnel and what deficit results from its compression there?
The ulnar nerve; compression at the elbow causes paraesthesia of the little and ring fingers, weakness of intrinsic hand muscles, and in severe cases an ulnar claw hand.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome and which structure is compressed?
Compression of the median nerve beneath the flexor retinaculum at the wrist, causing pain and paraesthesia in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger, with thenar wasting in chronic cases; Tinel's and Phalen's tests are positive.
Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured and why is avascular necrosis a major concern?
The scaphoid; its blood supply enters distally and runs retrograde (proximal-to-distal perfusion), so a proximal pole fracture risks avascular necrosis and non-union. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is the classic sign.
What is the difference between a Colles' and a Smith's fracture of the distal radius?
Colles' fracture: distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement and dorsal angulation ('dinner-fork' deformity), from a fall on an outstretched hand. Smith's ('reverse Colles') fracture: volar (palmar) displacement, from a fall onto the back of a flexed hand.
Which hip fractures risk avascular necrosis of the femoral head, and why?
Intracapsular (subcapital/transcervical) neck of femur fractures, because they disrupt the retinacular branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery that supply the femoral head; extracapsular (intertrochanteric) fractures rarely cause AVN.
What is the typical clinical appearance of a displaced extracapsular hip fracture?
The affected limb is shortened and externally rotated, with pain and inability to weight-bear; external rotation is more marked than in intracapsular fractures.
What is the unhappy triad (O'Donoghue triad) of the knee?
A combined injury of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), the medial collateral ligament (MCL), and the medial meniscus (classically described; lateral meniscus is now considered more commonly involved), typically from a lateral blow to a planted, flexed knee.
Which clinical tests assess anterior cruciate ligament integrity, and which is most sensitive?
The anterior drawer test, the Lachman test (most sensitive), and the pivot-shift test (most specific) assess ACL integrity; a soft or absent endpoint indicates a tear.
What is the McMurray test used to detect?
Meniscal tears; the examiner flexes the knee and rotates the tibia while extending — a palpable or audible click with pain suggests a meniscal tear (external rotation for medial meniscus, internal rotation for lateral).
What is the most common ankle sprain and which ligament is involved?
An inversion (lateral) sprain involving the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), the weakest and most commonly injured lateral ankle ligament.
What are the Ottawa ankle rules used for?
They are clinical decision rules to determine when ankle/foot X-rays are needed: X-ray if there is bony tenderness at the posterior edge/tip of either malleolus, the navicular, or the base of the 5th metatarsal, or inability to bear weight for four steps both immediately and in the ED.
What is the difference between hallux valgus and hallux rigidus?
Hallux valgus is lateral deviation of the great toe at the first MTP joint (bunion formation); hallux rigidus is degenerative arthritis of the first MTP joint causing stiffness, pain, and loss of dorsiflexion.
What is developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) and which clinical tests screen for it in neonates?
A spectrum of abnormal hip development from dysplasia to frank dislocation. Neonatal screening uses the Ortolani test (relocates a dislocated hip with a 'clunk') and the Barlow test (dislocates a dislocatable hip); ultrasound is the imaging of choice under 6 months.
What are the risk factors for DDH (the classic associations)?
Female sex, first-born child, breech presentation, oligohydramnios, family history, and being on the left side; mnemonic considerations include the 'packaging' problems that limit fetal hip movement.
What are the four components of the deformity in congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)?
CAVE: Cavus (high medial arch), Adductus (of the forefoot), Varus (heel/hindfoot inversion), and Equinus (ankle plantarflexion). First-line treatment is the Ponseti method of serial casting.
What is the difference between scoliosis, kyphosis, and lordosis?
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine with rotation (Cobb angle >10°); kyphosis is excessive posterior (outward) convex curvature of the thoracic spine; lordosis is excessive anterior (inward) concave curvature, usually lumbar.
What is the Cobb angle and why is it important in scoliosis?
The Cobb angle measures the magnitude of spinal curvature between the most tilted end vertebrae on a standing radiograph; it guides management — bracing typically considered around 25–40° in a skeletally immature patient and surgery often considered above ~45–50°.
What is the most common primary malignant bone tumour, in whom does it occur, and where?
Osteosarcoma; it most commonly affects adolescents/young adults, arises around the knee (distal femur/proximal tibia, the metaphysis), and shows a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle on X-ray.
What is the classic radiographic and clinical feature of Ewing's sarcoma?
Ewing's sarcoma typically affects children/adolescents in the diaphysis of long bones or pelvis, shows an 'onion-skin' (lamellated) periosteal reaction, and is associated with the t(11;22) translocation (EWS-FLI1 fusion).
What is a giant cell tumour of bone (osteoclastoma) and its characteristic location?
A locally aggressive, usually benign tumour of young adults (20–40 years) arising at the epiphysis/metaphysis of long bones, classically the distal femur or proximal tibia, with a 'soap-bubble' lytic appearance and a lytic eccentric pattern.
Which cancers most commonly metastasise to bone, and is the spread usually lytic or blastic?
Breast, prostate, lung, kidney (renal), and thyroid (mnemonic: BLT with a Kosher Pickle). Most are osteolytic; prostate cancer characteristically produces osteoblastic (sclerotic) lesions, and breast can be mixed.
What is the most common benign soft tissue tumour, and what is the most common adult soft-tissue sarcoma?
The most common benign soft-tissue tumour is the lipoma; among adult soft-tissue sarcomas, undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (formerly malignant fibrous histiocytoma) and liposarcoma are the most common.
What is the RICE protocol for acute soft-tissue sports injuries?
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation — used in the acute phase (first 24–72 hours) to limit swelling, pain, and bleeding; often expanded to PRICE (Protection) or POLICE (Protection, Optimal Loading, Ice, Compression, Elevation).
What is the difference between an acute traumatic injury and an overuse injury, with an example of the latter?
Acute injuries result from a single identifiable high-force event (e.g., ankle sprain, ACL rupture); overuse injuries result from repetitive microtrauma exceeding tissue repair capacity (e.g., stress fracture, tendinopathy, shin splints).
What general criteria must be met before an athlete is cleared for return to play after injury?
Full pain-free range of motion, restoration of strength (typically ≥90% of the uninjured side), normal proprioception/balance, completion of sport-specific functional testing, and psychological readiness, progressing through a graded rehabilitation programme.
In orthopaedic physiotherapy, what is the difference between cryotherapy and thermotherapy and when is each used?
Cryotherapy (cold) causes vasoconstriction and reduces acute swelling, pain, and inflammation (used in acute injury). Thermotherapy (heat) causes vasodilation, increases blood flow and tissue extensibility, and relieves stiffness/spasm (used in subacute/chronic phases).
What is the difference between isometric, isotonic, and isokinetic muscle exercises in rehabilitation?
Isometric: muscle contracts without joint movement or change in muscle length (static). Isotonic: muscle changes length against a constant load with joint movement (concentric/eccentric). Isokinetic: movement at a constant (fixed) angular velocity with accommodating resistance, requiring special equipment.
What is the difference between arthroscopy and arthroplasty?
Arthroscopy is minimally invasive joint surgery using a fibre-optic camera and small portals to diagnose and treat intra-articular pathology (e.g., meniscal repair, ACL reconstruction). Arthroplasty is surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint (e.g., total hip/knee replacement).
What is the most common indication for total joint replacement, and what is the principle of evidence-based orthopaedics that guides such decisions?
Osteoarthritis is the most common indication for total hip and knee replacement. Evidence-based orthopaedics integrates the best available research evidence (ideally randomised controlled trials and meta-analyses, the top of the hierarchy of evidence), clinical expertise, and patient values to guide treatment.

Same Orthopaedics syllabus in other exams

The Orthopaedics outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

NEET PG Orthopaedics FAQ

What is in the NEET PG Orthopaedics syllabus?

NEET PG Orthopaedics is split into 10 chapters: General Orthopaedics, Trauma and Fractures, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb, Pediatric Orthopaedics, Orthopaedic Oncology, Sports Medicine, Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy, Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques and Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice. Together they contain 30 topics and 107 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NEET PG Orthopaedics?

10 chapters, containing 30 topics and 107 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma and Fractures, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for NEET PG Orthopaedics?

Yes — a 53-card Orthopaedics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.