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FMGE Orthopaedics Syllabus

The Orthopaedics syllabus for FMGE in full: 10 chapters, 30 topics and 107 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Orthopaedics flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

30Topics

107Sub-topics

52Flashcards

Orthopaedics syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

General Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Introduction to Orthopaedics
  - History, scope, and importance in medical practice
- Basic Principles of Orthopaedic Examination
  - History taking
  - Physical examination
  - Assessment of musculoskeletal function
- Imaging Modalities in Orthopaedics
  - X-ray
  - CT scan
  - MRI
  - Ultrasound
  - Nuclear medicine imaging
Trauma and Fractures
4 topics
- Classification of fractures
  - Open vs. closed fractures
  - Displaced vs. nondisplaced fractures
  - Complete vs. incomplete fractures
- Principles of fracture management
  - Closed reduction
  - Open reduction
  - Internal fixation
  - External fixation
  - Plaster immobilization
- Complications of fractures
  - Delayed union
  - Nonunion
  - Malunion
  - Compartment syndrome
  - Infection
- Fracture healing
  - Phases of fracture healing
  - Factors influencing healing
  - Principles of fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb
3 topics
- Shoulder disorders
  - Rotator cuff injuries
  - Shoulder dislocation
  - Adhesive capsulitis
  - Shoulder impingement syndrome
- Elbow disorders
  - Tennis elbow
  - Golfer's elbow
  - Elbow instability
- Hand and wrist disorders
  - Carpal tunnel syndrome
  - Trigger finger
  - Dupuytren's contracture
  - De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb
3 topics
- Hip disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - avascular necrosis of the hip
  - hip fractures
  - hip dysplasia
- Knee disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - meniscal injuries
  - ligamentous injuries (ACL, PCL)
  - patellofemoral syndrome
- Ankle and foot disorders
  - Ankle sprain
  - Achilles tendon rupture
  - plantar fasciitis
  - hallux valgus (bunion)
Pediatric Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
  - Screening
  - Diagnosis
  - Management of DDH in infants and children
- Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
  - Classification
  - Ponseti method
  - Surgical correction
- Developmental disorders of the spine
  - Scoliosis
  - Kyphosis
  - Congenital vertebral anomalies
Orthopaedic Oncology
3 topics
- Primary Bone Tumors
  - Osteosarcoma
  - Chondrosarcoma
  - Ewing's Sarcoma
  - Giant Cell Tumor
- Metastatic Bone Disease
  - Pathophysiology
  - Clinical Presentation
  - Management of Bone Metastases
- Soft Tissue Tumors
  - Lipoma
  - Fibroma
  - Synovial Sarcoma
  - Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma
Sports Medicine
3 topics
- Sports-related injuries
  - Muscle strains
  - Ligament sprains
  - Tendonitis
  - Stress fractures
- Overuse injuries
  - Runner's knee
  - Shin splints
  - Tennis elbow
  - Stress fractures
- Rehabilitation and return to play
  - Physiotherapy
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Gradual progression of activities
Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy
3 topics
- Principles of orthopaedic rehabilitation
  - Range of motion exercises
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Proprioceptive training
- Modalities in orthopaedic physiotherapy
  - Heat therapy
  - Cold therapy
  - Ultrasound therapy
  - Electrical stimulation
  - Traction
- Postoperative rehabilitation
  - Rehabilitation protocols following orthopaedic surgeries
  - Joint replacement
  - Ligament reconstruction
  - Fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques
3 topics
- Arthroscopic Surgery
  - Indications
  - Techniques
  - Complications of arthroscopic procedures in various joints
- Joint Replacement Surgery
  - Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
  - Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
  - Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (TSA)
- Spinal Surgery
  - Decompression Procedures
  - Spinal Fusion
  - Instrumentation Techniques in the Management of Spinal Disorders
Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice
2 topics
- Basics of orthopaedic research
  - Study design
  - Data collection
  - Statistical analysis
  - Interpretation of research findings
- Evidence-based orthopaedics
  - Critical appraisal of research literature
  - Application of evidence-based guidelines
  - Practice-based learning

FMGE Orthopaedics flashcards — 52 questions with answers

What is the definition of orthopaedics as a surgical specialty?
The branch of surgery concerned with the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of disorders and injuries of the musculoskeletal system, including bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, muscles, and nerves.
In the standard orthopaedic clinical examination sequence, what are the three steps and their conventional order?
Look (inspection), Feel (palpation), Move (active then passive range of motion) - the 'Look, Feel, Move' approach, often followed by special tests and neurovascular assessment.
What does the SOAP / 'history-then-examination' principle emphasize regarding limb examination?
Always examine the joint above and the joint below the area of complaint, compare with the contralateral (normal) side, and assess distal neurovascular status.
Which imaging modality is the first-line investigation for suspected fractures, and what is the minimum number of views required?
Plain radiography (X-ray); at least two views taken at 90 degrees to each other (typically anteroposterior and lateral), including the joints above and below.
What is the imaging modality of choice for soft tissue injuries such as ligament, tendon, meniscal, and labral tears?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), due to its superior soft-tissue contrast resolution and lack of ionizing radiation.
When is CT preferred over plain X-ray in orthopaedic imaging?
For complex fractures (e.g., intra-articular, pelvic, spinal, calcaneal), assessing bony detail, fracture comminution, and surgical planning where 3D reconstruction helps.
What is the difference between a complete and an incomplete (greenstick) fracture?
A complete fracture involves disruption of both cortices across the entire bone width; an incomplete (greenstick) fracture breaks one cortex while the other bends, typically seen in children.
Define a compound (open) fracture versus a simple (closed) fracture.
In an open (compound) fracture the fracture site communicates with the external environment through a skin/mucosal breach; in a closed (simple) fracture the overlying skin is intact.
What does the Gustilo-Anderson classification describe, and how many types/grades does it have?
It classifies open (compound) fractures by wound size, soft-tissue damage, and contamination: Type I (<1 cm clean), Type II (1-10 cm), Type III (>10 cm or high energy), with IIIA, IIIB (needs soft-tissue coverage), and IIIC (vascular injury requiring repair).
What are the descriptive terms for fracture displacement patterns?
Translation (shift), angulation, rotation, and shortening (impaction/distraction); described as the position of the distal fragment relative to the proximal fragment.
What are the four R's that summarize the principles of fracture management?
Resuscitation, Reduction, Restriction (immobilization/holding), and Rehabilitation (sometimes stated as Reduce, Hold, Rehabilitate).
What is the difference between closed reduction and open reduction of a fracture?
Closed reduction realigns fracture fragments without surgical exposure (manipulation/traction); open reduction surgically exposes the fracture to achieve alignment, usually followed by internal fixation (ORIF).
What does 'absolute stability' versus 'relative stability' mean in fracture fixation?
Absolute stability is rigid fixation with no interfragmentary motion, leading to primary (direct) bone healing (e.g., lag screw, compression plate); relative stability allows controlled micromotion, leading to secondary healing with callus (e.g., intramedullary nail, bridging plate).
What is the difference between primary and secondary fracture healing?
Primary (direct) healing occurs with rigid fixation and anatomic reduction via direct cortical/Haversian remodeling without callus; secondary (indirect) healing occurs with relative stability via callus formation through endochondral and intramembranous ossification.
List the four overlapping stages of secondary fracture healing in order.
1) Hematoma/inflammation, 2) Soft (fibrocartilaginous) callus formation, 3) Hard (bony) callus formation, 4) Remodeling.
What is the difference between delayed union, malunion, and nonunion?
Delayed union = healing slower than expected but still progressing; malunion = healing in a non-anatomic (deformed) position; nonunion = failure of healing with no progression toward union (often defined as >6-9 months without healing).
Name the early local and systemic complications of fractures.
Local early: vascular injury, nerve injury, compartment syndrome, infection. Systemic early: hemorrhage/hypovolemic shock, fat embolism syndrome, ARDS, deep vein thrombosis/pulmonary embolism.
What is compartment syndrome and what is the classic symptom that heralds it?
A surgical emergency where increased pressure within an osteofascial compartment compromises perfusion; the earliest/most reliable sign is pain out of proportion, worsened by passive stretch of the muscles in that compartment (one of the 6 P's).
What are the 6 P's of acute compartment syndrome / limb ischemia?
Pain (out of proportion, on passive stretch), Paresthesia, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia (coldness). Pain and paresthesia are early; pulselessness and paralysis are late.
What is Volkmann's ischemic contracture and which injury classically causes it?
A permanent flexion contracture of the wrist and fingers from untreated forearm compartment syndrome/ischemia of the flexor muscles; classically follows a supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children.

Show the other 32 Orthopaedics flashcards

What is the most common direction of shoulder (glenohumeral) dislocation and the nerve most at risk?
Anterior dislocation is most common (~95%); the axillary nerve is most at risk, tested by sensation over the 'regimental badge' area of the lateral deltoid.
What is the difference between a Bankart lesion and a Hill-Sachs lesion?
A Bankart lesion is an avulsion/tear of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum; a Hill-Sachs lesion is a compression (impaction) fracture of the posterolateral humeral head - both result from anterior shoulder dislocation.
What is adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) and its characteristic clinical finding?
A condition of progressive shoulder stiffness and pain due to capsular fibrosis/contracture; characterized by global loss of both active AND passive range of motion, especially external rotation, often in diabetics aged 40-60.
What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and its feared complication?
The scaphoid; complications include avascular necrosis of the proximal pole and nonunion, because its blood supply enters distally (retrograde). Suspected with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox.
Describe a Colles fracture.
A fracture of the distal radius (within ~2.5 cm of the wrist) with dorsal displacement/angulation of the distal fragment, producing the classic 'dinner fork' deformity; typically from a fall on an outstretched hand in older adults.
What is a Smith fracture and how does it differ from a Colles fracture?
A Smith (reverse Colles) fracture is a distal radius fracture with VOLAR (palmar) displacement of the distal fragment, producing a 'garden spade' deformity; Colles has dorsal displacement.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome and which nerve is compressed?
Compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the wrist, causing pain/paresthesia in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger; positive Tinel's and Phalen's tests; thenar wasting in chronic cases.
What is the difference between lateral epicondylitis and medial epicondylitis of the elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis ('tennis elbow') is tendinosis of the common extensor origin (extensor carpi radialis brevis); medial epicondylitis ('golfer's elbow') affects the common flexor-pronator origin.
What is the most common elbow fracture in children and its major complication?
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus; major complications include brachial artery and median/anterior interosseous nerve injury, and Volkmann's ischemic contracture from compartment syndrome.
What is the classic clinical presentation of a femoral neck (intracapsular hip) fracture?
The affected limb is shortened and externally rotated, with hip pain and inability to bear weight, typically after a low-energy fall in an elderly osteoporotic patient.
Why are displaced intracapsular femoral neck fractures prone to avascular necrosis?
The femoral head's main blood supply (medial femoral circumflex artery via retinacular vessels) runs along the femoral neck and is disrupted by displacement, leading to avascular necrosis and nonunion.
What is the most common direction of hip prosthesis/native posterior dislocation and the limb position seen?
Posterior dislocation is most common; the limb is shortened, flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. The sciatic nerve is at risk.
What does the unhappy/terrible triad of the knee consist of?
The combination of injuries to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), the medial collateral ligament (MCL), and the medial meniscus, classically from a valgus force with the foot planted.
Which clinical tests assess anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) integrity?
The Lachman test (most sensitive), the anterior drawer test, and the pivot-shift test - all detect excessive anterior tibial translation relative to the femur.
What is McMurray's test used to detect?
Meniscal tears of the knee; pain or a palpable click on rotating and extending the flexed knee suggests a meniscal injury (external rotation for medial meniscus, internal rotation for lateral meniscus).
What are the components of the Ottawa Ankle Rules?
Ankle X-ray is indicated if there is pain in the malleolar zone PLUS bony tenderness at the posterior edge/tip of either malleolus OR inability to bear weight (4 steps) both immediately and in the ED; foot films for midfoot zone pain with navicular or 5th metatarsal base tenderness.
Which ankle ligament is most commonly injured in an inversion sprain?
The anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), part of the lateral ligament complex, injured during plantarflexion-inversion injuries.
What is developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) and which two clinical tests screen for it in neonates?
A spectrum of hip instability/dysplasia where the femoral head and acetabulum are improperly aligned; screened with the Ortolani test (relocation of a dislocated hip) and the Barlow test (provocation/dislocation of a dislocatable hip).
What is the first-line treatment for DDH in an infant under 6 months of age?
A Pavlik harness, which holds the hips in flexion and abduction to maintain reduction and promote acetabular development.
What does the deformity in congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot) consist of, and what is the mnemonic?
Cavus (high arch), Adductus (forefoot adduction), Varus (heel inversion), and Equinus (ankle plantarflexion) - mnemonic CAVE; the primary treatment is the Ponseti method of serial casting.
What is adolescent idiopathic scoliosis and what Cobb angle defines it?
A lateral curvature of the spine with rotation of unknown cause in adolescents; defined as a Cobb angle greater than 10 degrees; bracing is considered for curves 25-45 degrees, surgery generally for curves >45-50 degrees.
What is spondylolisthesis and how is its severity graded?
Anterior slippage of one vertebra over the one below it; graded by the Meyerding classification I-IV (and V = spondyloptosis) based on the percentage of slip in 25% increments.
What is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children/adolescents and its classic radiographic sign?
Osteosarcoma; classic signs include the 'sunburst/sunray' periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle, typically around the knee (distal femur/proximal tibia metaphysis).
Which primary bone tumor classically shows an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction and a characteristic chromosomal translocation?
Ewing sarcoma; it shows lamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction and carries the t(11;22) EWS-FLI1 translocation, typically affecting the diaphysis of long bones in children.
What is a giant cell tumor of bone and its typical radiographic appearance/location?
A locally aggressive, usually benign tumor of the epiphysis/metaphysis of long bones (commonly around the knee and distal radius) in young adults, showing an eccentric, lytic 'soap-bubble' appearance extending to the subchondral bone.
Which five primary cancers most commonly metastasize to bone (mnemonic)?
Breast, Lung, Thyroid, Kidney (renal), and Prostate - mnemonic 'BLT with a Kosher Pickle.' Most are osteolytic, but prostate metastases are characteristically osteoblastic (sclerotic).
What is the most common benign soft tissue tumor in adults?
Lipoma - a benign tumor of mature adipocytes, typically soft, mobile, painless, and subcutaneous.
What is the most common malignant soft tissue sarcoma in older adults, and what is a red-flag feature suggesting a soft tissue mass is malignant?
Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (formerly malignant fibrous histiocytoma); red flags for malignancy include size >5 cm, deep to fascia, rapid growth, and being painful/fixed.
Differentiate a sprain, a strain, and a stress (overuse) fracture.
A sprain is a ligament injury; a strain is a muscle or tendon injury; a stress fracture is a fatigue fracture of bone from repetitive submaximal loading (overuse), common in the tibia and metatarsals.
What does the RICE protocol stand for in acute soft-tissue/sports injury management?
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation - the immediate first-aid management to limit swelling and pain in acute musculoskeletal injuries.
What is the goal of the SAID principle in orthopaedic rehabilitation and return to play?
SAID = Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands; rehabilitation and progressive loading must replicate the specific functional/sport demands so tissues adapt appropriately, and return to play follows criteria-based (not purely time-based) progression once strength, ROM, and sport-specific tests are met.
In evidence-based orthopaedics, what type of study sits at the top of the hierarchy of evidence (Level I), and what does PICO stand for?
A systematic review/meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (high-quality RCTs) represents the highest level of evidence; PICO = Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, a framework for forming a focused clinical question.

Same Orthopaedics syllabus in other exams

The Orthopaedics outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

FMGE Orthopaedics FAQ

What is in the FMGE Orthopaedics syllabus?

FMGE Orthopaedics is split into 10 chapters: General Orthopaedics, Trauma and Fractures, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb, Pediatric Orthopaedics, Orthopaedic Oncology, Sports Medicine, Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy, Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques and Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice. Together they contain 30 topics and 107 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in FMGE Orthopaedics?

10 chapters, containing 30 topics and 107 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma and Fractures, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for FMGE Orthopaedics?

Yes — a 52-card Orthopaedics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.