FMGE Anatomy Syllabus

Name the arches of the foot and the main structures maintaining them.

Medial longitudinal arch (highest), lateral longitudinal arch, and transverse arch. Maintained by bone shape, plantar ligaments (long/short plantar, spring/plantar calcaneonavicular ligament), plantar aponeurosis, and intrinsic muscles plus tibialis posterior/peroneus longus.

What are the two principal venous systems of the lower limb and where do the great and small saphenous veins drain?

Superficial and deep systems connected by perforators. Great (long) saphenous vein runs anterior to the medial malleolus and drains into the femoral vein at the saphenous opening; small (short) saphenous vein runs behind the lateral malleolus and drains into the popliteal vein.

Which superficial veins are the preferred sites for venepuncture in the upper limb?

The veins of the cubital fossa — median cubital vein (most common), cephalic vein (lateral), and basilic vein (medial). The median cubital vein is preferred as it is superficial and relatively fixed.

How is the mediastinum subdivided?

By the transverse thoracic (sternal angle) plane into superior and inferior mediastinum. The inferior is further divided into anterior (in front of pericardium), middle (the pericardium and heart), and posterior (behind pericardium) mediastinum.

Name the layers of the pericardium.

Fibrous pericardium (outer, tough) and serous pericardium with a parietal layer (lining the fibrous pericardium) and a visceral layer (epicardium, on the heart). The pericardial cavity lies between the two serous layers.

Which arteries supply the heart, and what does the right coronary artery typically give off?

Left coronary artery → anterior interventricular (LAD) and circumflex branches. Right coronary artery → marginal branch and, in ~90% (right-dominant), the posterior interventricular artery; it also supplies the SA node (60%) and AV node (most people).

Name the components of the cardiac conducting system in order.

Sinoatrial (SA) node (pacemaker, in right atrium) → atrioventricular (AV) node → AV bundle (of His) → right and left bundle branches → Purkinje fibres.

Which chambers of the heart form the structures seen on a chest X-ray borders?

Right border = right atrium; left border = left ventricle and left atrial appendage; inferior border = right ventricle (mainly) and left ventricle apex; the right ventricle forms most of the anterior (sternocostal) surface.

How many bronchopulmonary segments are in each lung, and why are they clinically important?

Right lung typically 10, left lung typically 8–10. Each is a functionally independent unit with its own segmental bronchus and artery; this allows surgical resection of a single segment (segmentectomy).

What is the difference between visceral and parietal pleura, and what is the costodiaphragmatic recess?

Visceral pleura covers the lung surface (insensitive to pain); parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall (sensitive). The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest part of the pleural cavity between costal and diaphragmatic pleura where fluid collects and thoracentesis is performed.

How do the lobes and fissures of the right and left lungs differ?

Right lung: 3 lobes (upper, middle, lower) with oblique and horizontal fissures. Left lung: 2 lobes (upper, lower) with only an oblique fissure, plus a lingula and cardiac notch.

What is the difference between the greater and lesser peritoneal sacs, and how do they communicate?

The greater sac is the main peritoneal cavity; the lesser sac (omental bursa) lies behind the stomach. They communicate through the epiploic foramen (of Winslow).

List the peritoneal folds and ligaments related to the stomach and liver.

Greater omentum (gastrocolic, gastrosplenic, gastrophrenic ligaments) hangs from the greater curvature; lesser omentum (hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments) connects lesser curvature to liver. The hepatoduodenal ligament contains the portal triad.

What is the blood supply of the foregut, midgut, and hindgut?

Foregut (to mid-duodenum) → celiac trunk; midgut (mid-duodenum to proximal 2/3 transverse colon) → superior mesenteric artery; hindgut (distal 1/3 transverse colon to upper rectum) → inferior mesenteric artery.

What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?

Left gastric artery, splenic artery, and common hepatic artery.

What are the boundaries and contents of the inguinal canal?

Floor = inguinal ligament; roof = arching internal oblique/transversus abdominis fibres; anterior wall = external oblique aponeurosis (+ internal oblique laterally); posterior wall = transversalis fascia (+ conjoint tendon medially). Contents: spermatic cord (male)/round ligament (female) plus the ilioinguinal nerve.

How are direct and indirect inguinal hernias distinguished anatomically?

Indirect hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, and traverses the canal (often congenital). Direct hernia pushes through the posterior wall (Hesselbach's triangle), medial to the inferior epigastric vessels (usually acquired).

What are the boundaries of Hesselbach's (inguinal) triangle?

Medially the lateral border of rectus abdominis, laterally the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly the inguinal ligament. Direct hernias protrude through this triangle.

What muscles form the pelvic floor (pelvic diaphragm), and what is its main hiatus?

Levator ani (puborectalis, pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus) and coccygeus. It supports the pelvic viscera; the urogenital hiatus transmits the urethra and (in females) the vagina, and the anal canal passes through it posteriorly.

How is the perineum divided, and what are the two triangles?

A line between the ischial tuberosities divides it into the anterior urogenital triangle (containing urogenital structures and perineal membrane) and the posterior anal triangle (containing the anal canal and ischioanal/ischiorectal fossae).

Name the triangles of the neck and the structure that divides them.

Sternocleidomastoid divides the neck into the anterior triangle (subdivided into submental, submandibular/digastric, carotid, muscular triangles) and the posterior triangle (subdivided into occipital and supraclavicular/subclavian triangles).

Name the layers of deep cervical fascia.

Investing layer (surrounds the whole neck, splits to enclose trapezius and SCM), pretracheal layer (encloses thyroid, trachea, esophagus), prevertebral layer (surrounds vertebral column and muscles), and the carotid sheath (containing common carotid, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve).

List the twelve cranial nerves in order with their functional type (sensory/motor/both).

I Olfactory (S), II Optic (S), III Oculomotor (M), IV Trochlear (M), V Trigeminal (B), VI Abducens (M), VII Facial (B), VIII Vestibulocochlear (S), IX Glossopharyngeal (B), X Vagus (B), XI Accessory (M), XII Hypoglossal (M). Mnemonic for type: Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most.

Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibres, and through which ganglia do they synapse?

CN III (ciliary ganglion → eye), CN VII (pterygopalatine → lacrimal/nasal, submandibular → salivary glands), CN IX (otic → parotid), and CN X (terminal ganglia in thoracic/abdominal viscera).

Name the three parts of the brainstem and one key structure of each.

Midbrain (contains the cerebral peduncles, colliculi, and nuclei of CN III & IV), pons (contains nuclei of CN V, VI, VII, VIII and pontine nuclei), and medulla oblongata (contains nuclei of CN IX, X, XII, the pyramids and olives, and cardiorespiratory centres).

What are the three functional divisions of the cerebellum, and what does damage to the cerebellum cause?

Vestibulocerebellum (flocculonodular lobe — balance/eye movement), spinocerebellum (vermis/paravermis — posture, gait), and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres — coordination of planned movement). Damage causes ipsilateral ataxia, intention tremor, dysmetria, and nystagmus.

Name the components (nuclei) of the basal ganglia.

Caudate nucleus and putamen (together the striatum), globus pallidus (putamen + globus pallidus = lentiform nucleus), subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra. They control movement; degeneration of substantia nigra causes Parkinson's disease.

Name the major ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord and what each carries.

Ascending: dorsal columns (fine touch, proprioception, vibration — cross in medulla), spinothalamic tract (pain, temperature, crude touch — cross in cord). Descending: corticospinal/pyramidal tract (voluntary motor — decussates in medulla) and extrapyramidal tracts (rubrospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal).

Describe the arterial supply of the brain and the Circle of Willis.

The brain is supplied by two internal carotid arteries (anterior circulation) and two vertebral arteries (which join to form the basilar artery — posterior circulation). The Circle of Willis is formed by anterior cerebral arteries + anterior communicating artery, internal carotids, posterior cerebral arteries + posterior communicating arteries, connecting the two systems.

Describe the ventricular system and the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Two lateral ventricles → interventricular foramina (of Monro) → third ventricle → cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) → fourth ventricle → foramina of Luschka (lateral, 2) and Magendie (median, 1) → subarachnoid space → absorbed by arachnoid granulations into the dural venous sinuses. CSF is produced by the choroid plexus.

What are the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis, and a key timing difference?

Both: spermatogonia/oogonia → primary (1°) → secondary (2°) gametocytes → spermatids/ovum via meiosis. Spermatogenesis is continuous from puberty (~64 days, 4 sperm per cell). Oogenesis: 1° oocytes arrest in prophase I until ovulation, completing meiosis II only at fertilization, producing 1 ovum + polar bodies.

What are the key events and timing of fertilization and early development up to germ layer formation?

Fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube → zygote → cleavage → morula → blastocyst (implants ~day 6–7). Bilaminar disc (epiblast + hypoblast) forms in week 2; gastrulation in week 3 forms the trilaminar disc (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) via the primitive streak.