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FMGE Paediatrics Syllabus

The Paediatrics syllabus for FMGE in full: 10 chapters, 38 topics and 85 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Paediatrics flashcards with answers.

10Chapters
38Topics
85Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Paediatrics syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Normal Growth and Development

     3 topics
    • Growth parameters
      • Weight
      • Length/Height
      • Head circumference
      • Growth charts
    • Developmental milestones
      • Gross motor
      • Fine motor
      • Language
      • Social
      • Cognitive development
    • Nutritional requirements
      • Breastfeeding
      • Formula feeding
      • Introduction of solid foods
      • Nutritional deficiencies

  2. Neonatology

     3 topics
    • Neonatal resuscitation
      • Initial steps
      • Positive pressure ventilation
      • Chest compressions
      • Medications (epinephrine, naloxone)
    • Neonatal jaundice
      • Physiological jaundice
      • Pathological jaundice
      • Kernicterus
      • Management (phototherapy, exchange transfusion)
    • Neonatal infections
      • Neonatal sepsis
      • Pneumonia
      • Meningitis
      • Congenital infections (TORCH infections)

  3. Infectious Diseases

     4 topics
    • Respiratory infections
      • Bronchiolitis
      • Pneumonia (viral, bacterial)
      • Croup
      • Pertussis
    • Gastrointestinal infections
      • Acute gastroenteritis
      • Rotavirus infection
      • Hepatitis A
      • Typhoid fever
    • Central nervous system infections
      • Meningitis (bacterial, viral)
      • Encephalitis
      • Febrile seizures
    • Vaccine-preventable diseases
      • Diphtheria
      • Tetanus
      • Pertussis
      • Measles
      • Mumps
      • Rubella
      • Polio
      • Hepatitis B
      • Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
      • Pneumococcal disease
      • Meningococcal disease
      • Varicella
      • Influenza
      • Human papillomavirus (HPV)

  4. Respiratory Disorders

     3 topics
    • Asthma
      • Pathophysiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis: Spirometry
      • Diagnosis: Peak Flow Meter
      • Management: Inhaled Corticosteroids
      • Management: Bronchodilators
    • Bronchiolitis
      • Etiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis
      • Management: Supportive Care
      • Management: Oxygen Therapy
    • Cystic fibrosis
      • Pathophysiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis: Sweat Chloride Test
      • Management: Airway Clearance Techniques
      • Management: Pancreatic Enzyme Replacement

  5. Gastroenterology and Nutrition

     3 topics
    • Diarrheal diseases
      • Acute diarrhea
      • Persistent diarrhea
      • Chronic diarrhea: Inflammatory bowel disease
      • Chronic diarrhea: Celiac disease
    • Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
      • Clinical features
      • Diagnosis (pH monitoring)
      • Management: Lifestyle modification
      • Management: Proton pump inhibitors
    • Malnutrition
      • Marasmus
      • Kwashiorkor
      • Vitamin A deficiency
      • Iron deficiency anemia
      • Nutritional rehabilitation

  6. Congenital heart diseases

     5 topics
    • Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
    • Atrial septal defect (ASD)
    • Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
    • Tetralogy of Fallot
    • Coarctation of the aorta

  7. Febrile seizures

     4 topics
    • Simple febrile seizures
    • Complex febrile seizures
    • Risk factors
    • Management

  8. Acute kidney injury (AKI)

     4 topics
    • Etiology
    • Clinical features
    • Diagnosis
      • Serum creatinine
      • Urine output
    • Management

  9. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

     4 topics
    • Pathophysiology
    • Clinical features
    • Diagnosis
      • Blood glucose
      • HbA1c
    • Management
      • Insulin therapy
      • Carbohydrate counting

  10. Allergic disorders

     5 topics
    • Allergic rhinitis
    • Allergic conjunctivitis
    • Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
    • Food allergies
    • Anaphylaxis

FMGE Paediatrics flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. What is the expected pattern of weight gain in the first year, expressed relative to birth weight?

    Birth weight doubles by ~5 months, triples by 1 year, and quadruples by 2 years.

  2. What is the average rate of weight gain (grams/day) in the first 3 months of life?

    Roughly 25-30 g/day (about 750-900 g/month) in the first 3 months.

  3. What is the Weech formula to estimate weight (kg) of a child aged 1-6 years?

    Weight (kg) = (Age in years x 2) + 8.

  4. How does length/height change in the first 2 years of life?

    Length increases ~25 cm in the 1st year and ~12 cm in the 2nd year; height roughly doubles birth length by age 4.

  5. What is the normal head circumference at birth, and how much does it grow in the first year?

    Birth HC is ~34-35 cm; it increases ~12 cm in the first year (2 cm/month for first 3 months, then 1 cm/month, then 0.5 cm/month).

  6. When does the anterior fontanelle close, and when does the posterior fontanelle close?

    Anterior fontanelle closes by 9-18 months; posterior fontanelle closes by 1-2 months.

  7. At what gross-motor ages does a child typically achieve head control, sitting without support, and independent walking?

    Head control by ~3 months, sits without support by ~6-8 months, walks independently by ~12-15 months.

  8. List key fine-motor milestones: palmar grasp, transfers objects, immature (raking) pincer, and mature pincer grasp.

    Palmar grasp ~4 months, transfers objects hand-to-hand ~6 months, immature pincer ~9 months, mature (neat) pincer grasp ~12 months.

  9. What are the expected language milestones at 1, 2, and 3 years?

    1 year: 1-3 words/mama-dada with meaning; 2 years: 2-word phrases and ~50 words; 3 years: 3-word sentences, speech mostly intelligible.

  10. When does social smile appear and when does stranger anxiety typically develop?

    Social smile by ~6-8 weeks (2 months); stranger anxiety develops around 6-9 months.

  11. What is the recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration, and when should complementary feeding begin?

    Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months; complementary feeding started at 6 months while continuing breastfeeding up to 2 years or beyond.

  12. What are the approximate daily calorie and protein requirements per kg in the first 6 months of infancy?

    Energy ~100-110 kcal/kg/day and protein ~1.5-2 g/kg/day in the first 6 months.

  13. What is the fluid requirement by the Holliday-Segar (4-2-1) rule?

    100 mL/kg/day for first 10 kg, +50 mL/kg/day for next 10 kg, +20 mL/kg/day for each kg above 20 kg (hourly: 4-2-1 mL/kg/h).

  14. Which vitamin is routinely given to all newborns at birth and why?

    Vitamin K (IM) at birth to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (hemorrhagic disease of the newborn).

  15. In neonatal resuscitation, what are the initial steps performed within the first 'Golden Minute'?

    Provide warmth, position/clear airway, dry and stimulate; assess breathing and heart rate, and begin positive-pressure ventilation if apneic/gasping or HR <100 bpm, all within 60 seconds.

  16. During neonatal resuscitation, at what heart rate are chest compressions started and at what ratio with ventilation?

    Start chest compressions if HR <60 bpm despite 30 seconds of effective PPV; use a 3:1 compression-to-ventilation ratio (90 compressions + 30 breaths per minute).

  17. What concentration of oxygen is recommended to initiate resuscitation of a term newborn?

    Room air (21% O2) for term infants; titrate using pre-ductal SpO2 targets (preterm <35 weeks start with 21-30% O2).

  18. What is the most common cause of pathological unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in the first 24 hours of life?

    Hemolysis, most often due to Rh or ABO blood group incompatibility (also G6PD deficiency).

  19. What clinical features distinguish physiological from pathological neonatal jaundice?

    Physiological jaundice appears after 24 h, peaks day 3-5, bilirubin <15 mg/dL, resolves by 1-2 weeks; pathological is onset <24 h, rises >5 mg/dL/day, total >15 mg/dL, conjugated >2 mg/dL, or persists >2 weeks.

  20. What is kernicterus and which bilirubin fraction causes it?

    Kernicterus is bilirubin-induced encephalopathy from deposition of unconjugated (free, fat-soluble) bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei.

Show the other 30 Paediatrics flashcards

  1. What is the first-line treatment for significant neonatal unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, and when is exchange transfusion indicated?

    Phototherapy is first-line; exchange transfusion is indicated for very high bilirubin levels approaching neurotoxic thresholds or signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy.

  2. Differentiate early-onset from late-onset neonatal sepsis by timing and typical organisms.

    Early-onset (<72 h, vertical): Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria. Late-onset (>72 h, nosocomial/community): coagulase-negative staphylococci, Staph aureus, Klebsiella, Candida.

  3. Name the components of the TORCH group of congenital infections.

    Toxoplasma, Other (syphilis, HIV, varicella, parvovirus B19), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus (CMV), Herpes simplex virus.

  4. What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis and the typical age of presentation?

    Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), most commonly in infants under 2 years (peak 3-6 months).

  5. Which organism most commonly causes community-acquired bacterial pneumonia in children, and what is first-line treatment?

    Streptococcus pneumoniae; first-line treatment is oral amoxicillin.

  6. What is the most common cause of acute viral gastroenteritis in young children worldwide?

    Rotavirus (now vaccine-preventable); norovirus is also a frequent cause.

  7. What clinical signs are used to assess dehydration severity in a child with diarrhea (WHO classification)?

    General condition, sunken eyes, ability to drink, and skin pinch (turgor); used to classify as no dehydration, some dehydration, or severe dehydration.

  8. What is the composition basis and management role of WHO low-osmolarity ORS in diarrheal disease?

    Low-osmolarity ORS (245 mOsm/L) with reduced sodium and glucose is the mainstay of rehydration; oral zinc supplementation for 10-14 days reduces duration and severity.

  9. What are the most common causes of acute bacterial meningitis in children beyond the neonatal period?

    Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis (Haemophilus influenzae type b now rare due to vaccination).

  10. What CSF findings differentiate bacterial from viral meningitis?

    Bacterial: high neutrophils, high protein, low glucose, turbid. Viral: lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal/mildly raised protein, normal glucose, clear.

  11. List the vaccines and diseases prevented in the WHO/Indian primary immunization schedule given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks (pentavalent).

    Pentavalent vaccine prevents Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Haemophilus influenzae type b; given with OPV/IPV and rotavirus/PCV.

  12. What are the classic clinical features (the 3 C's) of measles, and what pathognomonic enanthem precedes the rash?

    Cough, Coryza, and Conjunctivitis; Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa) are pathognomonic and precede the maculopapular rash.

  13. What is the chronic asthma stepwise pharmacologic cornerstone for persistent asthma in children?

    Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the cornerstone controller; short-acting beta-2 agonists (SABA) are used as reliever therapy.

  14. What is the first-line treatment for an acute asthma exacerbation in a child?

    Inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol), supplemental oxygen, and systemic corticosteroids; add ipratropium and consider IV magnesium sulphate in severe attacks.

  15. What is the management of bronchiolitis in infants?

    Mainly supportive: oxygen for hypoxia, hydration, and nasal suctioning; bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics are not routinely beneficial.

  16. What is the inheritance and underlying defect of cystic fibrosis?

    Autosomal recessive defect in the CFTR chloride channel gene (most commonly delta-F508), causing thick secretions in lungs, pancreas, and other exocrine organs.

  17. What is the diagnostic test of choice for cystic fibrosis and its diagnostic threshold?

    The sweat chloride test; a sweat chloride concentration >60 mmol/L is diagnostic.

  18. What is the typical clinical presentation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in infants and a red-flag distinguishing it from physiologic reflux?

    GERD presents with regurgitation plus poor weight gain, feeding refusal, irritability, or respiratory symptoms; physiologic reflux is the 'happy spitter' with normal growth. Red flags include bilious vomiting, hematemesis, and failure to thrive.

  19. How do you differentiate marasmus from kwashiorkor?

    Marasmus: severe wasting, marked weight loss, no edema (energy deficiency). Kwashiorkor: edema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, relatively preserved subcutaneous fat (protein deficiency).

  20. By WHO criteria, what defines severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children 6-59 months?

    Weight-for-height/length < -3 SD, OR mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) <11.5 cm, OR presence of bilateral pitting edema.

  21. What is the most common congenital heart defect overall, and what murmur is associated with it?

    Ventricular septal defect (VSD); produces a harsh holosystolic (pansystolic) murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border.

  22. Which acyanotic shunt lesion classically produces a wide, fixed split-second heart sound?

    Atrial septal defect (ASD).

  23. What is the characteristic murmur of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), and which drug is used to close it in preterm infants?

    A continuous 'machinery' murmur at the left infraclavicular area; indomethacin or ibuprofen (prostaglandin inhibitors) promote closure. Prostaglandin E1 keeps it open in duct-dependent lesions.

  24. What are the four anatomical components of Tetralogy of Fallot?

    Pulmonary stenosis (RV outflow obstruction), right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, and a ventricular septal defect.

  25. What is the characteristic chest X-ray finding in Tetralogy of Fallot, and how are hypercyanotic 'tet spells' managed?

    Boot-shaped heart (coeur en sabot); tet spells are managed with knee-chest position, oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, and beta-blockers.

  26. What are the classic clinical findings of coarctation of the aorta?

    Upper limb hypertension with weak/delayed femoral pulses (radio-femoral delay) and a brachiofemoral lag; older children may show rib notching on X-ray.

  27. What defines a simple febrile seizure?

    A generalized seizure lasting <15 minutes, occurring once in 24 hours, in a child aged 6 months-5 years with fever and no CNS infection or prior afebrile seizures.

  28. How does a complex febrile seizure differ from a simple one, and how does it affect epilepsy risk?

    Complex febrile seizures are focal, prolonged (>15 minutes), or recurrent within 24 hours; they carry a higher risk of subsequent epilepsy than simple febrile seizures.

  29. What are the components and treatment principle of the allergic march, and what is the first-line treatment for atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

    The atopic march progresses from atopic dermatitis to food allergy, allergic rhinitis, and asthma. First-line eczema treatment is emollients/moisturizers plus topical corticosteroids; avoid triggers.

  30. What is the immediate first-line drug and route for anaphylaxis in a child, and what is the pediatric dose?

    Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) into the anterolateral thigh, 0.01 mg/kg of 1:1000 solution (max 0.5 mg), repeated every 5-15 minutes as needed; supported by oxygen, IV fluids, antihistamines, and steroids.

Same Paediatrics syllabus in other exams

The Paediatrics outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

FMGE Paediatrics FAQ

What is in the FMGE Paediatrics syllabus?

FMGE Paediatrics is split into 10 chapters: Normal Growth and Development, Neonatology, Infectious Diseases, Respiratory Disorders, Gastroenterology and Nutrition, Congenital heart diseases, Febrile seizures, Acute kidney injury (AKI), Type 1 diabetes mellitus and Allergic disorders. Together they contain 38 topics and 85 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in FMGE Paediatrics?

10 chapters, containing 38 topics and 85 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Congenital heart diseases, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for FMGE Paediatrics?

Yes — a 50-card Paediatrics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.