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FMGE Psychiatry Syllabus

The Psychiatry syllabus for FMGE in full: 10 chapters, 32 topics and 130 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 54 Psychiatry flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

32Topics

130Sub-topics

54Flashcards

Psychiatry syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Introduction to Psychiatry
2 topics
- History of psychiatry
  - Evolution of psychiatric concepts and treatments
- Mental health and illness
  - Definition
  - Stigma
  - Determinants of mental health
Psychological Assessment
3 topics
- Mental status examination
  - Appearance
  - Behavior
  - Speech
  - Mood
  - Affect
  - Thought content
  - Thought process
  - Cognition
  - Insight
- Psychiatric history taking
  - Presenting complaints
  - Personal history
  - Family history
  - Medical history
  - Substance use history
  - Psychiatric treatment history
- Psychometric assessment
  - Screening tools (PHQ-9, GAD-7, AUDIT, CAGE)
  - Standardized rating scales (HAM-D, MADRS, PANSS)
Psychiatric Disorders
6 topics
- Mood disorders
  - Major depressive disorder
  - Bipolar disorder
  - Dysthymia
  - Cyclothymia
  - Mood disorder due to a medical condition or substance
- Anxiety disorders
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Panic disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Specific phobias
  - Obsessive-compulsive disorder
- Psychotic disorders
  - Schizophrenia
  - Schizophreniform disorder
  - Schizoaffective disorder
  - Delusional disorder
  - Brief psychotic disorder
- Substance-related disorders
  - Alcohol use disorder
  - Opioid use disorder
  - Stimulant use disorder
  - Cannabis use disorder
  - Tobacco use disorder
- Neurodevelopmental disorders
  - Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Intellectual disability
  - Specific learning disorders
- Personality disorders
  - Borderline personality disorder
  - Antisocial personality disorder
  - Narcissistic personality disorder
  - Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders
2 topics
- Somatoform disorders
  - Somatization disorder
  - Conversion disorder
  - Hypochondriasis
  - Somatic symptom disorder
- Dissociative disorders
  - Dissociative amnesia
  - Dissociative fugue
  - Depersonalization/derealization disorder
  - Dissociative identity disorder
Eating Disorders
3 topics
- Anorexia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Nutritional rehabilitation
  - Psychotherapy
- Bulimia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
- Binge-eating disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Psychotherapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
Sleep Disorders
3 topics
- Insomnia disorder
  - Difficulty falling asleep
  - Difficulty staying asleep
  - Non-restorative sleep
  - Sleep hygiene
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia
- Sleep-related breathing disorders
  - Obstructive sleep apnea
  - Central sleep apnea
  - Continuous positive airway pressure
  - Weight loss
- Parasomnias
  - Nightmare disorder
  - Sleep terror disorder
  - Sleepwalking disorder
  - REM sleep behavior disorder
Sexual Disorders
3 topics
- Sexual dysfunctions
  - Erectile dysfunction
  - Premature ejaculation
  - Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
  - Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
- Paraphilic disorders
  - Exhibitionism
  - Voyeurism
  - Fetishism
  - Pedophilia
  - Sexual masochism/sadism
- Gender dysphoria
  - Incongruence between assigned gender and experienced gender
  - Clinical features
  - Psychosocial support
  - Hormone therapy
  - Gender-affirming surgery
Geriatric Psychiatry
3 topics
- Dementia
  - Alzheimer's disease
  - Vascular dementia
  - Lewy body dementia
  - Frontotemporal dementia
  - Management (cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine)
- Delirium
  - Clinical features
  - Etiology (infection, medication, metabolic disturbances)
  - Management (identifying and treating underlying causes)
- Late-life depression
  - Clinical features
  - Risk factors
  - Management (antidepressant medications, psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy)
Child and Adolescent Psychiatry
4 topics
- Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (stimulant medications, behavioral therapy)
- Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Core features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (behavioral interventions, social skills training)
- Conduct disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnostic criteria (DSM-5)
  - Management (parent management training, cognitive-behavioral therapy)
- Pediatric anxiety disorders
  - Separation anxiety disorder
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Management (cognitive-behavioral therapy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry
3 topics
- Mental health legislation
  - Involuntary hospitalization
  - Capacity to consent
  - Confidentiality
- Ethical principles in psychiatry
  - Autonomy
  - Beneficence
  - Nonmaleficence
  - Justice
- Forensic psychiatry
  - Assessment of competency
  - Criminal responsibility
  - Civil commitment

FMGE Psychiatry flashcards — 54 questions with answers

Who is regarded as the 'father of modern psychiatry' for unchaining the mentally ill at the Bicêtre and Salpêtrière hospitals?
Philippe Pinel, who pioneered the humane 'moral treatment' of patients in late 18th-century France.
Which two major classification systems are used in psychiatry, and who publishes each?
DSM-5-TR, published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA), and ICD-11, published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
How does the WHO define mental health?
A state of well-being in which an individual realizes their own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to contribute to their community.
What are the main components (headings) of the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
Appearance and behaviour, Speech, Mood and affect, Thought (form and content), Perception, Cognition, Insight, and Judgement.
In the MSE, what is the difference between 'mood' and 'affect'?
Mood is the patient's sustained, subjectively reported emotional state; affect is the examiner's objective observation of the patient's emotional expression (range, reactivity, congruence).
What are the key sections of a standard psychiatric history?
Identifying data, chief complaint, history of present illness, past psychiatric history, past medical history, drug/substance history, family history, personal (developmental) history, premorbid personality, and forensic history.
What is the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE), and what is the cut-off suggestive of cognitive impairment?
A 30-point bedside cognitive screening tool; a score below 24 (out of 30) is generally suggestive of cognitive impairment/dementia.
Name one widely used projective psychometric test and one objective personality inventory.
Projective: Rorschach Inkblot Test (or TAT). Objective: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).
What are the DSM-5 duration criteria for a major depressive episode versus a manic episode?
Major depressive episode: symptoms most of the day, nearly every day for at least 2 weeks. Manic episode: at least 1 week (or any duration if hospitalization required).
Using the mnemonic SIG E CAPS, list the symptoms screened for in major depression.
Sleep changes, loss of Interest, Guilt/worthlessness, low Energy, poor Concentration, Appetite changes, Psychomotor changes, Suicidality (plus depressed mood).
What distinguishes Bipolar I from Bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode plus at least one major depressive episode, with no full mania.
What is the minimum duration of symptoms required to diagnose persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) in adults?
Depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years (1 year in children/adolescents).
What is the diagnostic duration requirement for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
Excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, difficult to control, with associated symptoms (restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance).
What is a panic attack, and what defines panic disorder?
A panic attack is an abrupt surge of intense fear peaking within minutes with somatic/cognitive symptoms. Panic disorder is recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus at least 1 month of worry about further attacks or maladaptive behaviour change.
What is agoraphobia?
Marked fear or anxiety about two or more situations (public transport, open spaces, enclosed spaces, crowds, being outside the home alone) where escape might be difficult, leading to avoidance, for at least 6 months.
What are the two core symptom domains of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Obsessions (recurrent, intrusive, unwanted thoughts/images causing anxiety) and compulsions (repetitive behaviours or mental acts performed to reduce that anxiety).
What are the four symptom clusters of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Intrusion (re-experiencing/flashbacks), avoidance, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity, persisting more than 1 month after trauma.
What are Schneider's first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia?
Audible thoughts (thought echo), voices arguing/discussing, running commentary, thought withdrawal/insertion/broadcasting, made feelings/impulses/acts (passivity), somatic passivity, and delusional perception.
What is the minimum duration of symptoms required to diagnose schizophrenia in DSM-5?
Continuous signs of disturbance for at least 6 months, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms (with at least one being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech).
How do positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ?
Positive symptoms are added experiences: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech/behaviour. Negative symptoms are deficits: affective flattening, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, and asociality.

Show the other 34 Psychiatry flashcards

How is brief psychotic disorder distinguished from schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia by duration?
Brief psychotic disorder: 1 day to less than 1 month. Schizophreniform: 1 to 6 months. Schizophrenia: 6 months or more.
What is the CAGE questionnaire used to screen for, and what score is significant?
It screens for alcohol use disorder (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener); a score of 2 or more positive answers is clinically significant.
What is the first-line medication for alcohol withdrawal, and which vitamin must be given to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Benzodiazepines (e.g., chlordiazepoxide or lorazepam) for withdrawal; thiamine (vitamin B1) must be given before glucose to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy.
What is the classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Confusion (encephalopathy), ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, and ataxia.
Name the antidote/opioid antagonist for opioid overdose and the symptoms of opioid withdrawal.
Naloxone reverses opioid overdose. Opioid withdrawal causes lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, yawning, mydriasis, piloerection, diarrhoea, myalgia, and dysphoria (not life-threatening).
What characterizes a neurodevelopmental disorder, and at what stage do these disorders typically manifest?
A group of conditions with onset in the developmental period (early childhood) producing deficits in personal, social, academic, or occupational functioning (e.g., ASD, ADHD, intellectual disability, learning disorders).
What are the three clusters of personality disorders in DSM-5, and their themes?
Cluster A ('odd/eccentric': paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal); Cluster B ('dramatic/erratic': antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic); Cluster C ('anxious/fearful': avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive).
What are the core features of borderline personality disorder?
A pervasive pattern of instability in relationships, self-image, and affect, with marked impulsivity: fear of abandonment, identity disturbance, recurrent self-harm/suicidality, chronic emptiness, and intense anger.
What is the hallmark of somatic symptom disorder (formerly somatoform)?
One or more distressing somatic symptoms with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviours related to the symptoms (disproportionate concern, high anxiety, excessive time/energy), persisting typically more than 6 months.
How does illness anxiety disorder differ from somatic symptom disorder?
In illness anxiety disorder there is preoccupation with having/acquiring a serious illness with minimal or absent somatic symptoms, whereas somatic symptom disorder features prominent distressing physical symptoms.
What is conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)?
Neurological symptoms (weakness, paralysis, seizures, blindness) incompatible with recognized neurological disease, not intentionally produced, often associated with psychological stressors.
What are the three main dissociative disorders in DSM-5?
Dissociative identity disorder (DID), dissociative amnesia (including dissociative fugue), and depersonalization/derealization disorder.
What characterizes dissociative identity disorder (DID)?
Two or more distinct personality states (identities) with recurrent gaps in recall of everyday events, personal information, or traumatic events; often associated with severe early childhood trauma.
What are the diagnostic features and a key physical complication of anorexia nervosa?
Restriction of intake leading to significantly low body weight, intense fear of weight gain, and disturbed body image. Complications include amenorrhoea, bradycardia, osteoporosis, and lanugo hair.
What distinguishes bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa?
Bulimia features recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviours (vomiting, laxatives, exercise) but body weight is usually normal or above; anorexia is defined by significantly low body weight.
What is a classic dental/physical sign of self-induced vomiting in bulimia nervosa?
Russell's sign (calluses/scarring on the dorsum of the hand) along with dental enamel erosion and parotid gland enlargement; electrolyte disturbance is hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
What distinguishes binge-eating disorder from bulimia nervosa?
Binge-eating disorder involves recurrent binge eating with distress but WITHOUT regular compensatory behaviours, and is commonly associated with obesity.
What are the diagnostic criteria for insomnia disorder regarding frequency and duration?
Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity/quality (difficulty initiating, maintaining sleep, or early waking) occurring at least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months, causing daytime impairment.
What is obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA), and what is its first-line treatment?
Repetitive upper-airway collapse during sleep causing apnoeas/hypopnoeas, snoring, and daytime sleepiness; first-line treatment is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
How are parasomnias classified into NREM and REM types, with an example of each?
NREM parasomnias (occur in deep slow-wave sleep, early night): sleepwalking and sleep terrors. REM parasomnia: REM sleep behaviour disorder (acting out dreams), and nightmare disorder.
List the four phases of the normal human sexual response cycle (Masters and Johnson).
Excitement (desire/arousal), plateau, orgasm, and resolution.
Give examples of common sexual dysfunctions in men and women.
Men: erectile disorder, premature (early) ejaculation, delayed ejaculation. Women: female sexual interest/arousal disorder, female orgasmic disorder, genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.
What defines a paraphilic disorder (as opposed to a paraphilia)?
A paraphilia (atypical sexual interest) becomes a paraphilic disorder only when it causes distress/impairment to the individual OR involves harm/risk to others (e.g., paedophilic, exhibitionistic, voyeuristic, frotteuristic disorders).
What is gender dysphoria?
Marked incongruence between a person's experienced/expressed gender and their assigned gender, lasting at least 6 months and causing clinically significant distress or impairment.
What is the most common cause of dementia, and its characteristic neuropathology?
Alzheimer's disease; characterized by extracellular beta-amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles (hyperphosphorylated tau), with cortical atrophy and acetylcholine deficiency.
How is delirium distinguished from dementia in terms of onset, course, and consciousness?
Delirium: acute onset, fluctuating course, impaired consciousness/attention, often reversible. Dementia: insidious onset, progressive course, clear consciousness (until late), generally irreversible.
Why is late-life (geriatric) depression sometimes misdiagnosed as dementia, and what is this called?
Depression in the elderly can present with prominent cognitive impairment that mimics dementia but reverses with treatment; this is called 'pseudodementia' (depressive cognitive disorder).
What are the three core symptom domains and the age-of-onset criterion for ADHD in DSM-5?
Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity; several symptoms must be present before age 12, in two or more settings, for at least 6 months.
What are the two core domains of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
(1) Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction; and (2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities (including sensory abnormalities), with onset in the early developmental period.
How does conduct disorder differ from oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)?
Conduct disorder involves repetitive violation of others' basic rights or major societal norms (aggression to people/animals, destruction, deceit/theft, serious rule violations); ODD is a pattern of angry/irritable mood and defiant/argumentative behaviour without serious rights violations.
What is the most common anxiety disorder of early childhood, and its key feature?
Separation anxiety disorder: developmentally inappropriate, excessive fear or distress concerning separation from attachment figures, lasting at least 4 weeks in children/adolescents.
In Indian mental health legislation, which Act replaced the Mental Health Act 1987, and what key rights did it introduce?
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, which decriminalized suicide attempts, introduced the Advance Directive, the Nominated Representative, and the right to access mental healthcare; it also regulates the use of ECT (banned without anaesthesia and in minors except in specific cases).
Name the four core ethical principles of medical/psychiatric practice.
Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice; supported by confidentiality and informed consent.
What landmark legal standard defines criminal responsibility ('insanity defence'), and what is its Indian statutory counterpart?
The M'Naghten Rules (defect of reason such that the person did not know the nature/quality of the act or that it was wrong); in India this corresponds to Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code (now BNS) covering acts of a person of 'unsound mind'.

Same Psychiatry syllabus in other exams

The Psychiatry outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

FMGE Psychiatry FAQ

What is in the FMGE Psychiatry syllabus?

FMGE Psychiatry is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Psychiatry, Psychological Assessment, Psychiatric Disorders, Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders, Eating Disorders, Sleep Disorders, Sexual Disorders, Geriatric Psychiatry, Child and Adolescent Psychiatry and Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry. Together they contain 32 topics and 130 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in FMGE Psychiatry?

10 chapters, containing 32 topics and 130 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Psychiatric Disorders, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for FMGE Psychiatry?

Yes — a 54-card Psychiatry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.