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MBBS Psychiatry Syllabus

The Psychiatry syllabus for MBBS in full: 10 chapters, 32 topics and 130 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Psychiatry flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

32Topics

130Sub-topics

51Flashcards

Psychiatry syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Introduction to Psychiatry
2 topics
- History of psychiatry
  - Evolution of psychiatric concepts and treatments
- Mental health and illness
  - Definition
  - Stigma
  - Determinants of mental health
Psychological Assessment
3 topics
- Mental status examination
  - Appearance
  - Behavior
  - Speech
  - Mood
  - Affect
  - Thought content
  - Thought process
  - Cognition
  - Insight
- Psychiatric history taking
  - Presenting complaints
  - Personal history
  - Family history
  - Medical history
  - Substance use history
  - Psychiatric treatment history
- Psychometric assessment
  - Screening tools (PHQ-9, GAD-7, AUDIT, CAGE)
  - Standardized rating scales (HAM-D, MADRS, PANSS)
Psychiatric Disorders
6 topics
- Mood disorders
  - Major depressive disorder
  - Bipolar disorder
  - Dysthymia
  - Cyclothymia
  - Mood disorder due to a medical condition or substance
- Anxiety disorders
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Panic disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Specific phobias
  - Obsessive-compulsive disorder
- Psychotic disorders
  - Schizophrenia
  - Schizophreniform disorder
  - Schizoaffective disorder
  - Delusional disorder
  - Brief psychotic disorder
- Substance-related disorders
  - Alcohol use disorder
  - Opioid use disorder
  - Stimulant use disorder
  - Cannabis use disorder
  - Tobacco use disorder
- Neurodevelopmental disorders
  - Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Intellectual disability
  - Specific learning disorders
- Personality disorders
  - Borderline personality disorder
  - Antisocial personality disorder
  - Narcissistic personality disorder
  - Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders
2 topics
- Somatoform disorders
  - Somatization disorder
  - Conversion disorder
  - Hypochondriasis
  - Somatic symptom disorder
- Dissociative disorders
  - Dissociative amnesia
  - Dissociative fugue
  - Depersonalization/derealization disorder
  - Dissociative identity disorder
Eating Disorders
3 topics
- Anorexia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Nutritional rehabilitation
  - Psychotherapy
- Bulimia nervosa
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
- Binge-eating disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Medical complications
  - Psychotherapy
  - Pharmacotherapy
Sleep Disorders
3 topics
- Insomnia disorder
  - Difficulty falling asleep
  - Difficulty staying asleep
  - Non-restorative sleep
  - Sleep hygiene
  - Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia
- Sleep-related breathing disorders
  - Obstructive sleep apnea
  - Central sleep apnea
  - Continuous positive airway pressure
  - Weight loss
- Parasomnias
  - Nightmare disorder
  - Sleep terror disorder
  - Sleepwalking disorder
  - REM sleep behavior disorder
Sexual Disorders
3 topics
- Sexual dysfunctions
  - Erectile dysfunction
  - Premature ejaculation
  - Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
  - Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
- Paraphilic disorders
  - Exhibitionism
  - Voyeurism
  - Fetishism
  - Pedophilia
  - Sexual masochism/sadism
- Gender dysphoria
  - Incongruence between assigned gender and experienced gender
  - Clinical features
  - Psychosocial support
  - Hormone therapy
  - Gender-affirming surgery
Geriatric Psychiatry
3 topics
- Dementia
  - Alzheimer's disease
  - Vascular dementia
  - Lewy body dementia
  - Frontotemporal dementia
  - Management (cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine)
- Delirium
  - Clinical features
  - Etiology (infection, medication, metabolic disturbances)
  - Management (identifying and treating underlying causes)
- Late-life depression
  - Clinical features
  - Risk factors
  - Management (antidepressant medications, psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy)
Child and Adolescent Psychiatry
4 topics
- Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (stimulant medications, behavioral therapy)
- Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
  - Core features
  - Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
  - Management (behavioral interventions, social skills training)
- Conduct disorder
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnostic criteria (DSM-5)
  - Management (parent management training, cognitive-behavioral therapy)
- Pediatric anxiety disorders
  - Separation anxiety disorder
  - Generalized anxiety disorder
  - Social anxiety disorder
  - Management (cognitive-behavioral therapy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry
3 topics
- Mental health legislation
  - Involuntary hospitalization
  - Capacity to consent
  - Confidentiality
- Ethical principles in psychiatry
  - Autonomy
  - Beneficence
  - Nonmaleficence
  - Justice
- Forensic psychiatry
  - Assessment of competency
  - Criminal responsibility
  - Civil commitment

MBBS Psychiatry flashcards — 51 questions with answers

Who is often regarded as the founder of modern descriptive psychiatry, known for distinguishing dementia praecox from manic-depressive illness?
Emil Kraepelin. He introduced a classification system separating dementia praecox (later renamed schizophrenia by Eugen Bleuler) from manic-depressive (mood) disorders, forming the basis of modern psychiatric nosology.
What reform did Philippe Pinel introduce to the history of psychiatry?
Pinel championed the 'moral treatment' of the mentally ill and is famous for unchaining patients at the Bicetre and Salpetriere asylums in Paris, promoting humane, non-restraint care in the late 18th century.
In psychiatry, how is 'mental health' defined by the WHO?
A state of well-being in which an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community.
What are the two major international classification systems used to diagnose mental illness?
The DSM-5-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition, American Psychiatric Association) and the ICD-11 (International Classification of Diseases, WHO).
List the main components (headings) assessed in the Mental Status Examination (MSE).
Appearance and behaviour; Speech; Mood and affect; Thought (form/process and content); Perception; Cognition; Insight; and Judgement.
In the MSE, what is the difference between 'mood' and 'affect'?
Mood is the patient's sustained, subjectively reported emotional state ('the climate'); affect is the examiner's objective observation of the patient's moment-to-moment emotional expression ('the weather'), assessed for range, appropriateness, and congruence.
In thought form, define 'flight of ideas' and contrast it with 'loosening of associations.'
Flight of ideas is rapid speech with logically/phonetically connected ideas jumping between topics (typical of mania). Loosening of associations (derailment) is a shift between unrelated ideas with no logical connection (typical of schizophrenia).
What is the difference between an illusion and a hallucination?
An illusion is a misperception of a real external stimulus. A hallucination is a perception occurring in the absence of any external stimulus, experienced as real and originating in external space.
Define 'insight' as assessed in the MSE.
Insight is the patient's awareness and understanding that they have a mental illness, its nature, and the need for treatment. It is graded from complete denial of illness to true emotional insight with willingness to act on it.
What are the essential components of a comprehensive psychiatric history?
Identifying data; presenting complaint and history of present illness; past psychiatric history; past medical history; drug/treatment history; family history; personal (developmental) history; premorbid personality; and substance use history.
What is meant by 'premorbid personality' in psychiatric history taking?
A description of the patient's habitual personality, attitudes, relationships, interests, mood, character and coping style before the onset of the current illness, used as a baseline to gauge change.
In psychometric assessment, what does an IQ score represent and what is the population mean and standard deviation?
IQ (Intelligence Quotient) measures cognitive ability relative to age peers. On standard scales (e.g., Wechsler) the mean is $100$ with a standard deviation of $15$, so about $68\%$ of people score between $85$ and $115$.
Name two screening rating scales commonly used for depression severity.
The Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D, clinician-rated), the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI, self-rated), and the PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire-9, self-rated).
What is the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) used for and what is its maximum score?
The MMSE is a brief bedside cognitive screening tool assessing orientation, registration, attention/calculation, recall, language and visuospatial ability. The maximum score is $30$; a score below $24$ commonly suggests cognitive impairment.
What distinguishes Major Depressive Disorder from Persistent Depressive Disorder (dysthymia)?
MDD requires $\geq 5$ symptoms (including depressed mood or anhedonia) for $\geq 2$ weeks. Persistent depressive disorder is chronic low-grade depressed mood for $\geq 2$ years (1 year in children) with fewer symptoms but greater chronicity.
State the DSM-5 minimum symptom and duration criteria for a Major Depressive Episode.
At least 5 of 9 symptoms present nearly every day for $\geq 2$ weeks, with at least one being depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure (anhedonia). Symptoms cause significant distress/impairment and are not due to another cause.
List the 9 symptoms of a Major Depressive Episode (mnemonic SIGECAPS plus mood).
Depressed mood, plus: Sleep change, loss of Interest (anhedonia), Guilt/worthlessness, low Energy, poor Concentration, Appetite/weight change, Psychomotor agitation/retardation, Suicidal ideation.
What defines a manic episode and how does it differ from hypomania?
A manic episode is $\geq 1$ week of elevated/irritable mood plus increased energy with $\geq 3$ (or 4 if irritable) symptoms, causing marked impairment, psychosis, or hospitalization. Hypomania lasts $\geq 4$ days, has no marked impairment, no psychosis, and no hospitalization.
Differentiate Bipolar I from Bipolar II disorder.
Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode (depressive episodes common but not required). Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode, with no history of a full manic episode.
What is the first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, and what is its therapeutic serum range?
Lithium. The therapeutic serum level for maintenance is approximately $0.6$ to $1.0\,\text{mmol/L}$ (up to $\sim 1.2$ in acute mania); toxicity occurs above $\sim 1.5\,\text{mmol/L}$.

Show the other 31 Psychiatry flashcards

What are the core diagnostic features of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Excessive, difficult-to-control worry about multiple events occurring more days than not for $\geq 6$ months, plus $\geq 3$ of: restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance.
Describe a panic attack and the diagnostic basis of Panic Disorder.
A panic attack is an abrupt surge of intense fear peaking within minutes with $\geq 4$ somatic/cognitive symptoms (palpitations, sweating, dyspnea, chest pain, fear of dying, etc.). Panic disorder is recurrent unexpected attacks plus $\geq 1$ month of worry about further attacks or behavioural change.
What is the difference between a specific phobia, social anxiety disorder, and agoraphobia?
Specific phobia is fear of a particular object/situation (e.g., spiders). Social anxiety disorder is fear of social/performance scrutiny. Agoraphobia is fear of $\geq 2$ situations (crowds, transport, open/enclosed spaces) where escape is difficult.
What class of medication is first-line pharmacotherapy for most anxiety disorders, and why are benzodiazepines limited to short-term use?
SSRIs (and SNRIs) are first-line. Benzodiazepines are restricted to short-term use because of tolerance, dependence, withdrawal, and cognitive/sedative side effects.
List the key symptom domains of schizophrenia (positive, negative, cognitive).
Positive: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behaviour. Negative: blunted affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, asociality. Cognitive: impaired attention, working memory and executive function.
State the DSM-5 duration criterion that distinguishes schizophrenia from schizophreniform disorder and brief psychotic disorder.
Brief psychotic disorder: symptoms $\geq 1$ day but $< 1$ month with full return to baseline. Schizophreniform: $\geq 1$ month but $< 6$ months. Schizophrenia: continuous signs for $\geq 6$ months (including $\geq 1$ month of active-phase symptoms).
What is the difference between schizoaffective disorder and a mood disorder with psychotic features?
In schizoaffective disorder, delusions/hallucinations persist for $\geq 2$ weeks in the absence of a major mood episode (mood symptoms present for the majority of illness). In mood disorder with psychotic features, psychosis occurs only during mood episodes.
According to the dopamine hypothesis, which pathway hyperactivity underlies positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
Hyperactivity (excess dopamine) in the mesolimbic pathway produces positive symptoms; hypoactivity in the mesocortical pathway is linked to negative and cognitive symptoms. Antipsychotics block $D_{2}$ receptors.
Which antipsychotic is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, and what serious adverse effect requires monitoring?
Clozapine. It requires regular white blood cell/neutrophil monitoring because of the risk of agranulocytosis; it also carries risks of myocarditis, seizures, and metabolic effects.
What are the four CAGE questions used to screen for alcohol use disorder?
Have you tried to Cut down? Have people Annoyed you by criticizing your drinking? Have you felt Guilty about drinking? Have you needed an Eye-opener (a morning drink to steady nerves)? Two or more 'yes' answers suggest problem drinking.
What is delirium tremens and when does it typically occur after stopping alcohol?
Delirium tremens is a severe alcohol withdrawal syndrome with confusion, agitation, autonomic hyperactivity, fever, and visual hallucinations, typically appearing $48$ to $72$ hours after the last drink. It is a medical emergency treated with benzodiazepines.
Describe Wernicke encephalopathy and its triad, and the vitamin deficiency responsible.
Wernicke encephalopathy results from thiamine (vitamin $B_{1}$) deficiency, common in alcohol use disorder. The classic triad is confusion (encephalopathy), ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, and ataxia. Untreated it can progress to Korsakoff amnestic syndrome.
What is the difference between tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal in substance-related disorders?
Tolerance is needing increased amounts for the same effect. Dependence is a physiological/psychological need for the substance to function. Withdrawal is the characteristic syndrome of physical/psychological symptoms on reducing or stopping the substance.
What are the core features of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across contexts, plus restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities (e.g., stereotypies, insistence on sameness, fixated interests, sensory abnormalities), with onset in the early developmental period.
List the two core symptom domains of ADHD and the required age of onset.
Inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity. Several symptoms must be present before age $12$, occur in $\geq 2$ settings, persist $\geq 6$ months, and impair functioning. First-line treatment is stimulants (methylphenidate/amphetamines).
How is intellectual disability defined and graded?
Intellectual disability is deficits in intellectual functioning (reasoning, problem solving) and adaptive functioning with onset during the developmental period. Severity is based on adaptive functioning, traditionally graded mild, moderate, severe, and profound (historically IQ bands: mild $\approx 50$–$70$).
What is the difference between Cluster A, B, and C personality disorders?
Cluster A (odd/eccentric): paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal. Cluster B (dramatic/erratic): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic. Cluster C (anxious/fearful): avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
What are hallmark features of Borderline Personality Disorder?
A pervasive pattern of instability in relationships, self-image, and affect, with marked impulsivity: frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, identity disturbance, recurrent self-harm/suicidal behaviour, chronic emptiness, intense anger, and transient stress-related paranoia/dissociation.
What is the general definition of a personality disorder?
An enduring, inflexible, pervasive pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates markedly from cultural expectations, manifests in cognition, affect, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control, begins by adolescence/early adulthood, and causes distress or impairment.
What characterizes Somatic Symptom Disorder under DSM-5?
One or more distressing somatic symptoms plus excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviours about the symptoms (disproportionate worry, high anxiety, excessive time/energy devoted), persisting typically $> 6$ months. The symptom need not be medically unexplained.
Differentiate conversion disorder, illness anxiety disorder, and factitious disorder.
Conversion (functional neurological) disorder: neurological symptoms incompatible with disease. Illness anxiety disorder: preoccupation with having a serious illness with minimal somatic symptoms. Factitious disorder: deliberate falsification of symptoms to assume the sick role (no external incentive, unlike malingering).
What is the key distinction between somatoform/factitious disorders and malingering?
In somatoform disorders symptoms are genuinely experienced (not produced intentionally). In factitious disorder symptoms are intentionally produced for the psychological role of being sick. In malingering symptoms are intentionally produced for an external incentive (money, drugs, avoiding work/legal duty).
What are the main dissociative disorders recognized in DSM-5?
Dissociative amnesia (with or without dissociative fugue), Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), and Depersonalization/Derealization disorder.
Define depersonalization and derealization.
Depersonalization is a feeling of detachment or being an outside observer of one's own self, thoughts, or body. Derealization is a sense of unreality or detachment from one's surroundings, as if the external world is dreamlike or distorted. Reality testing remains intact.
What are the diagnostic features of Anorexia Nervosa?
Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or behaviour preventing weight gain, and disturbance in body image / undue influence of weight on self-evaluation. Subtypes: restricting and binge-eating/purging.
Name characteristic physical/biochemical complications of Anorexia Nervosa.
Amenorrhoea, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, lanugo hair, osteoporosis, and electrolyte disturbances (hypokalaemia). Refeeding syndrome (hypophosphataemia) is a dangerous complication of rapid nutritional restoration.
What are the diagnostic features of Bulimia Nervosa?
Recurrent binge eating with a sense of loss of control, recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours (self-induced vomiting, laxatives, fasting, excessive exercise), both occurring on average $\geq 1$ time per week for $3$ months, with self-evaluation unduly influenced by body shape/weight. Body weight is usually normal.
What physical signs suggest self-induced vomiting in Bulimia Nervosa?
Russell's sign (calluses/scarring on the knuckles), dental enamel erosion, parotid (salivary) gland swelling, and hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis from loss of gastric acid.
How does Binge-Eating Disorder differ from Bulimia Nervosa?
Binge-eating disorder involves recurrent binge eating with loss of control and marked distress, occurring $\geq 1$ time per week for $3$ months, but WITHOUT the regular inappropriate compensatory behaviours seen in bulimia. It is frequently associated with overweight/obesity.
What are the diagnostic features of Insomnia Disorder?
Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity/quality (difficulty initiating sleep, maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening) occurring $\geq 3$ nights per week for $\geq 3$ months despite adequate opportunity to sleep, causing daytime impairment. First-line treatment is CBT for insomnia (CBT-I) and sleep hygiene.
Describe Obstructive Sleep Apnea Hypopnea and a key diagnostic measure.
A sleep-related breathing disorder with repetitive upper-airway collapse causing apneas/hypopneas, snoring, and daytime sleepiness. Diagnosis uses polysomnography; severity is graded by the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) = events per hour, with $\geq 5$ obstructive events/hour required (mild $5$–$15$, moderate $15$–$30$, severe $> 30$). CPAP is first-line treatment.

Same Psychiatry syllabus in other exams

The Psychiatry outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

MBBS Psychiatry FAQ

What is in the MBBS Psychiatry syllabus?

MBBS Psychiatry is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Psychiatry, Psychological Assessment, Psychiatric Disorders, Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders, Eating Disorders, Sleep Disorders, Sexual Disorders, Geriatric Psychiatry, Child and Adolescent Psychiatry and Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry. Together they contain 32 topics and 130 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in MBBS Psychiatry?

10 chapters, containing 32 topics and 130 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Psychiatric Disorders, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for MBBS Psychiatry?

Yes — a 51-card Psychiatry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.