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MBBS Orthopaedics Syllabus

The Orthopaedics syllabus for MBBS in full: 10 chapters, 30 topics and 107 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Orthopaedics flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

30Topics

107Sub-topics

50Flashcards

Orthopaedics syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

General Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Introduction to Orthopaedics
  - History, scope, and importance in medical practice
- Basic Principles of Orthopaedic Examination
  - History taking
  - Physical examination
  - Assessment of musculoskeletal function
- Imaging Modalities in Orthopaedics
  - X-ray
  - CT scan
  - MRI
  - Ultrasound
  - Nuclear medicine imaging
Trauma and Fractures
4 topics
- Classification of fractures
  - Open vs. closed fractures
  - Displaced vs. nondisplaced fractures
  - Complete vs. incomplete fractures
- Principles of fracture management
  - Closed reduction
  - Open reduction
  - Internal fixation
  - External fixation
  - Plaster immobilization
- Complications of fractures
  - Delayed union
  - Nonunion
  - Malunion
  - Compartment syndrome
  - Infection
- Fracture healing
  - Phases of fracture healing
  - Factors influencing healing
  - Principles of fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb
3 topics
- Shoulder disorders
  - Rotator cuff injuries
  - Shoulder dislocation
  - Adhesive capsulitis
  - Shoulder impingement syndrome
- Elbow disorders
  - Tennis elbow
  - Golfer's elbow
  - Elbow instability
- Hand and wrist disorders
  - Carpal tunnel syndrome
  - Trigger finger
  - Dupuytren's contracture
  - De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb
3 topics
- Hip disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - avascular necrosis of the hip
  - hip fractures
  - hip dysplasia
- Knee disorders
  - Osteoarthritis
  - meniscal injuries
  - ligamentous injuries (ACL, PCL)
  - patellofemoral syndrome
- Ankle and foot disorders
  - Ankle sprain
  - Achilles tendon rupture
  - plantar fasciitis
  - hallux valgus (bunion)
Pediatric Orthopaedics
3 topics
- Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
  - Screening
  - Diagnosis
  - Management of DDH in infants and children
- Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
  - Classification
  - Ponseti method
  - Surgical correction
- Developmental disorders of the spine
  - Scoliosis
  - Kyphosis
  - Congenital vertebral anomalies
Orthopaedic Oncology
3 topics
- Primary Bone Tumors
  - Osteosarcoma
  - Chondrosarcoma
  - Ewing's Sarcoma
  - Giant Cell Tumor
- Metastatic Bone Disease
  - Pathophysiology
  - Clinical Presentation
  - Management of Bone Metastases
- Soft Tissue Tumors
  - Lipoma
  - Fibroma
  - Synovial Sarcoma
  - Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma
Sports Medicine
3 topics
- Sports-related injuries
  - Muscle strains
  - Ligament sprains
  - Tendonitis
  - Stress fractures
- Overuse injuries
  - Runner's knee
  - Shin splints
  - Tennis elbow
  - Stress fractures
- Rehabilitation and return to play
  - Physiotherapy
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Gradual progression of activities
Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy
3 topics
- Principles of orthopaedic rehabilitation
  - Range of motion exercises
  - Strengthening exercises
  - Proprioceptive training
- Modalities in orthopaedic physiotherapy
  - Heat therapy
  - Cold therapy
  - Ultrasound therapy
  - Electrical stimulation
  - Traction
- Postoperative rehabilitation
  - Rehabilitation protocols following orthopaedic surgeries
  - Joint replacement
  - Ligament reconstruction
  - Fracture fixation
Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques
3 topics
- Arthroscopic Surgery
  - Indications
  - Techniques
  - Complications of arthroscopic procedures in various joints
- Joint Replacement Surgery
  - Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
  - Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
  - Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (TSA)
- Spinal Surgery
  - Decompression Procedures
  - Spinal Fusion
  - Instrumentation Techniques in the Management of Spinal Disorders
Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice
2 topics
- Basics of orthopaedic research
  - Study design
  - Data collection
  - Statistical analysis
  - Interpretation of research findings
- Evidence-based orthopaedics
  - Critical appraisal of research literature
  - Application of evidence-based guidelines
  - Practice-based learning

MBBS Orthopaedics flashcards — 50 questions with answers

What is the definition of orthopaedics as a surgical specialty?
The branch of surgery concerned with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disorders of the musculoskeletal system — bones, joints, muscles, ligaments, tendons, and nerves.
In orthopaedic clinical assessment, what does the standard 'look, feel, move' sequence of examination refer to?
Inspection (look) for swelling, deformity, scars, and muscle wasting; palpation (feel) for tenderness, warmth, and crepitus; and assessment of movement (move) including active and passive range of motion.
What is the difference between active and passive range of motion in joint examination?
Active ROM is the movement a patient performs using their own muscles; passive ROM is the movement the examiner produces while the patient relaxes. A passive ROM greater than active suggests muscle/tendon weakness or pain inhibition.
What is the gold-standard imaging rule for plain radiographs of a suspected fracture (the 'rule of twos')?
Take at least two views (e.g., AP and lateral) at 90° to each other, include two joints (above and below), at two times if needed, and consider both limbs for comparison in children.
Which imaging modality is the investigation of choice for soft tissue, ligaments, cartilage, marrow oedema, and early osteomyelitis?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Which imaging modality best demonstrates complex fracture configurations and cortical bone detail, particularly for intra-articular and spinal fractures?
Computed tomography (CT).
What is a bone scintigraphy (bone scan) using technetium-99m most useful for detecting?
Increased bone turnover — stress fractures, metastases, osteomyelitis, and Paget's disease — shown as 'hot spots' of increased radiotracer uptake.
Define a 'simple' (closed) fracture versus a 'compound' (open) fracture.
A closed fracture does not communicate with the external environment; an open (compound) fracture has a break in the overlying skin so the fracture communicates with the outside, carrying a high infection risk.
What are the main descriptive categories of fracture pattern by configuration?
Transverse, oblique, spiral, comminuted (>2 fragments), segmental, greenstick (incomplete, paediatric), and impacted.
What does the Salter-Harris classification describe, and how is its mnemonic structured?
It classifies physeal (growth plate) fractures in children. Mnemonic SALTR: I = Slipped (through physis), II = Above (metaphysis, most common), III = Lower (epiphysis), IV = Through (epiphysis + metaphysis), V = Ruptured/crush (worst prognosis).
What does the Gustilo-Anderson classification grade, and what distinguishes its three main types?
It grades open fractures. Type I: wound <1 cm, clean. Type II: wound 1–10 cm, moderate soft tissue damage. Type III: wound >10 cm or severe soft tissue/contamination — IIIA (adequate coverage), IIIB (needs flap coverage), IIIC (arterial injury requiring repair).
What are the four key principles ('4 Rs') of fracture management?
Resuscitation (treat the patient first, ATLS), Reduction (restore alignment), Restriction/Retention (immobilise/hold reduction), and Rehabilitation (restore function).
What is the difference between closed and open reduction of a fracture?
Closed reduction restores alignment by manipulation without surgical exposure; open reduction involves surgically exposing the fracture to achieve direct reduction, usually combined with internal fixation (ORIF).
State the components of the Garden classification of intracapsular femoral neck fractures.
Garden I: incomplete/impacted in valgus. Garden II: complete, undisplaced. Garden III: complete, partially displaced. Garden IV: complete, fully displaced. (I–II undisplaced; III–IV displaced, higher avascular necrosis risk).
What is meant by relative versus absolute stability in fracture fixation?
Absolute stability (compression, e.g., lag screw/compression plate) produces no interfragmentary motion and primary (direct) bone healing. Relative stability (e.g., intramedullary nail, bridging plate) permits controlled micromotion and secondary healing via callus.
What is compartment syndrome and what is its characteristic early clinical sign?
A surgical emergency where raised pressure within a fascial compartment compromises perfusion. The earliest and most reliable sign is pain out of proportion to the injury, worsened by passive stretch of the muscles in the compartment.
At what compartment pressures (and delta pressure) is fasciotomy indicated in compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomy is indicated when the delta pressure ($\Delta P = \text{diastolic BP} - \text{compartment pressure}$) is less than $30\,\text{mmHg}$, or absolute compartment pressure is sustained above $30\text{–}40\,\text{mmHg}$.
List the early local, late local, and systemic complications of fractures.
Early local: vascular/nerve injury, compartment syndrome, infection. Late local: malunion, nonunion, delayed union, avascular necrosis, joint stiffness, post-traumatic OA, complex regional pain syndrome. Systemic: fat embolism, DVT/PE, ARDS, hypovolaemic shock.
What is the difference between delayed union, nonunion, and malunion?
Delayed union: healing slower than expected but still progressing. Nonunion: failure of healing with no progression (atrophic or hypertrophic). Malunion: healing in a non-anatomical position (angulation, rotation, or shortening).
What are the classic clinical features of fat embolism syndrome and its typical onset?
Onset 24–72 hours after long-bone fracture; the triad is respiratory distress (hypoxia), neurological changes (confusion), and a petechial rash (axilla, conjunctiva, chest).

Show the other 30 Orthopaedics flashcards

Describe the four overlapping stages of secondary fracture healing.
1) Haematoma/inflammation (0–48 h). 2) Soft callus formation (fibrocartilage, weeks 1–3). 3) Hard callus formation (woven bone via endochondral ossification). 4) Remodelling (woven bone replaced by lamellar bone along stress lines, per Wolff's law).
What is Wolff's law in the context of bone healing and adaptation?
Bone remodels and adapts to the mechanical loads placed upon it — bone is laid down where stress is high and resorbed where stress is low, optimising the trabecular structure along lines of force.
What distinguishes primary (direct) from secondary (indirect) fracture healing?
Primary healing occurs with absolute stability and anatomical reduction, with no callus — osteons cross the fracture directly (cutting cones). Secondary healing occurs with relative stability and proceeds through callus formation.
What is the most commonly dislocated direction of the shoulder (glenohumeral joint), and which nerve is at risk?
Anterior dislocation is most common (>95%); the axillary nerve is at risk, tested by sensation over the 'regimental badge' area of the deltoid and deltoid function.
What are the typical features of subacromial impingement / rotator cuff tendinopathy?
Painful arc of abduction between roughly 60° and 120°, pain on overhead activity, and positive impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins-Kennedy). The supraspinatus tendon is most commonly involved.
What is adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder), and which patient group is classically affected?
A self-limiting condition of progressive global restriction of both active and passive glenohumeral movement (especially external rotation) due to capsular contraction; classically affects diabetics and patients aged 40–60.
What is the most common type of elbow dislocation, and the most commonly fractured elbow bone in adults?
Posterior elbow dislocation is most common. In adults the radial head is the most commonly fractured elbow bone; in children the supracondylar humerus.
What are lateral epicondylitis and medial epicondylitis commonly called, and which tendons are involved?
Lateral epicondylitis = 'tennis elbow' (common extensor origin, especially extensor carpi radialis brevis). Medial epicondylitis = 'golfer's elbow' (common flexor-pronator origin).
Why is a supracondylar humeral fracture in a child an emergency?
Because of the risk of neurovascular injury — the brachial artery and median nerve (especially the anterior interosseous branch) may be damaged, risking Volkmann's ischaemic contracture.
What are the clinical features and at-risk structure of a scaphoid fracture?
Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on telescoping the thumb. The proximal pole has a retrograde blood supply, so fractures risk avascular necrosis and nonunion. Initial X-rays may be normal — treat clinically and re-image.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome, which nerve is compressed, and what is the distribution of symptoms?
Compression of the median nerve at the wrist beneath the flexor retinaculum. Causes paraesthesia/pain in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger, with thenar wasting in advanced cases.
What is Dupuytren's contracture?
Progressive fibrosis and contracture of the palmar fascia causing fixed flexion deformity, most commonly of the ring and little fingers; associated with diabetes, alcohol, and a positive family history.
What is the most common direction of hip dislocation and the resulting limb position?
Posterior dislocation is most common (~90%); the limb lies shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. The sciatic nerve is at risk.
What is the typical presentation of an osteoporotic intertrochanteric/femoral neck fracture in an elderly patient?
After a low-energy fall, the affected leg is shortened and externally rotated with pain on weight-bearing and movement at the hip.
What is avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis) of the femoral head and what are its main risk factors?
Death of bone due to interrupted blood supply, leading to collapse of the femoral head. Risk factors: corticosteroids, alcohol, sickle cell disease, trauma (femoral neck fracture/dislocation), and caisson disease.
What are the special tests for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) integrity in the knee?
The anterior drawer test and the Lachman test (knee at 20–30° flexion, more sensitive); a pivot-shift test indicates rotational instability.
What is the McMurray test used to assess in the knee?
A meniscal tear — the examiner flexes and rotates the knee while extending it; a painful click or pop indicates a meniscal injury (medial meniscus with external rotation, lateral with internal rotation).
What is the 'unhappy triad' of the knee?
Injury to the ACL, the medial collateral ligament (MCL), and the medial meniscus, classically from a lateral blow to a planted, flexed knee.
What is the Ottawa Ankle Rules' purpose and a key criterion?
To decide which ankle injuries need X-rays. X-ray is required if there is bone tenderness at the posterior edge/tip of either malleolus, tenderness at the navicular or base of the 5th metatarsal, or inability to bear weight for 4 steps both immediately and in the ED.
What does the Weber classification describe for ankle fractures?
Lateral malleolus (fibular) fractures relative to the syndesmosis: Weber A (below syndesmosis, stable), Weber B (at the level of syndesmosis), Weber C (above syndesmosis, unstable, syndesmosis usually disrupted).
What is hallux valgus and the typical radiographic angle that defines it?
Lateral deviation of the great toe at the first MTP joint with a medial bony prominence (bunion). It is defined by a hallux valgus angle greater than $15^{\circ}$ and an intermetatarsal angle greater than $9^{\circ}$.
What are the classic clinical tests for screening developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in neonates?
The Ortolani test (relocates a dislocated hip — a palpable 'clunk' of reduction on abduction) and the Barlow test (dislocates an unstable hip on adduction and posterior pressure).
What is the imaging investigation of choice for DDH under and over 4–6 months of age?
Ultrasound is used under ~4–6 months (femoral head not yet ossified); plain radiograph is used after ~6 months once the femoral head ossific nucleus appears.
What are the components of the deformity in congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)?
CAVE: Cavus (high medial arch), Adductus (forefoot), Varus (hindfoot inversion), and Equinus (plantarflexion/ankle pointing down).
What is the first-line treatment for idiopathic clubfoot?
The Ponseti method — serial manipulation and casting to correct the deformity in sequence, usually followed by a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy and a foot abduction (boots-and-bar) bracing programme.
How are spinal curvatures defined, and what Cobb angle defines scoliosis?
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature with rotation, defined by a Cobb angle greater than $10^{\circ}$. Kyphosis is excessive posterior (thoracic) convexity; lordosis is excessive anterior (lumbar/cervical) concavity.
What is spondylolisthesis, and what is spondylolysis?
Spondylolysis is a defect/stress fracture of the pars interarticularis. Spondylolisthesis is the forward slippage of one vertebra on the one below (commonly L5 on S1), graded by Meyerding I–IV by percentage of slip.
What is the most common primary malignant bone tumour, and its typical age and site?
Osteosarcoma — typically in adolescents/young adults (10–20 years), arising at the metaphysis of long bones around the knee (distal femur, proximal tibia). Radiographs may show a 'sunburst' appearance and Codman's triangle.
Compare the typical radiographic 'onion-skin' tumour and its demographic with osteosarcoma.
Ewing sarcoma shows a lamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction, affects younger children (5–15 years), arises in the diaphysis of long bones/pelvis, and is associated with the t(11;22) translocation (EWS-FLI1).
Which five primary cancers most commonly metastasise to bone, and what is the most common type of bone metastasis (lytic vs blastic)?
Breast, prostate, lung, kidney (renal), and thyroid (mnemonic: 'BLT with a Kosher Pickle'). Most metastases are osteolytic; prostate cancer classically produces osteoblastic (sclerotic) lesions.

Same Orthopaedics syllabus in other exams

The Orthopaedics outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

MBBS Orthopaedics FAQ

What is in the MBBS Orthopaedics syllabus?

MBBS Orthopaedics is split into 10 chapters: General Orthopaedics, Trauma and Fractures, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Upper Limb, Orthopaedic Disorders of the Lower Limb, Pediatric Orthopaedics, Orthopaedic Oncology, Sports Medicine, Orthopaedic Rehabilitation and Physiotherapy, Orthopaedic Surgery Techniques and Orthopaedic Research and Evidence-Based Practice. Together they contain 30 topics and 107 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in MBBS Orthopaedics?

10 chapters, containing 30 topics and 107 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma and Fractures, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for MBBS Orthopaedics?

Yes — a 50-card Orthopaedics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.