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🇮🇳 NEET PG · subject

NEET PG Psychiatry Syllabus

The Psychiatry syllabus for NEET PG in full: 10 chapters, 32 topics and 130 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 54 Psychiatry flashcards with answers.

10Chapters
32Topics
130Sub-topics
54Flashcards

Psychiatry syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Introduction to Psychiatry

     2 topics
    • History of psychiatry
      • Evolution of psychiatric concepts and treatments
    • Mental health and illness
      • Definition
      • Stigma
      • Determinants of mental health

  2. Psychological Assessment

     3 topics
    • Mental status examination
      • Appearance
      • Behavior
      • Speech
      • Mood
      • Affect
      • Thought content
      • Thought process
      • Cognition
      • Insight
    • Psychiatric history taking
      • Presenting complaints
      • Personal history
      • Family history
      • Medical history
      • Substance use history
      • Psychiatric treatment history
    • Psychometric assessment
      • Screening tools (PHQ-9, GAD-7, AUDIT, CAGE)
      • Standardized rating scales (HAM-D, MADRS, PANSS)

  3. Psychiatric Disorders

     6 topics
    • Mood disorders
      • Major depressive disorder
      • Bipolar disorder
      • Dysthymia
      • Cyclothymia
      • Mood disorder due to a medical condition or substance
    • Anxiety disorders
      • Generalized anxiety disorder
      • Panic disorder
      • Social anxiety disorder
      • Specific phobias
      • Obsessive-compulsive disorder
    • Psychotic disorders
      • Schizophrenia
      • Schizophreniform disorder
      • Schizoaffective disorder
      • Delusional disorder
      • Brief psychotic disorder
    • Substance-related disorders
      • Alcohol use disorder
      • Opioid use disorder
      • Stimulant use disorder
      • Cannabis use disorder
      • Tobacco use disorder
    • Neurodevelopmental disorders
      • Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
      • Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
      • Intellectual disability
      • Specific learning disorders
    • Personality disorders
      • Borderline personality disorder
      • Antisocial personality disorder
      • Narcissistic personality disorder
      • Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

  4. Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders

     2 topics
    • Somatoform disorders
      • Somatization disorder
      • Conversion disorder
      • Hypochondriasis
      • Somatic symptom disorder
    • Dissociative disorders
      • Dissociative amnesia
      • Dissociative fugue
      • Depersonalization/derealization disorder
      • Dissociative identity disorder

  5. Eating Disorders

     3 topics
    • Anorexia nervosa
      • Clinical features
      • Medical complications
      • Nutritional rehabilitation
      • Psychotherapy
    • Bulimia nervosa
      • Clinical features
      • Medical complications
      • Cognitive-behavioral therapy
      • Pharmacotherapy
    • Binge-eating disorder
      • Clinical features
      • Medical complications
      • Psychotherapy
      • Pharmacotherapy

  6. Sleep Disorders

     3 topics
    • Insomnia disorder
      • Difficulty falling asleep
      • Difficulty staying asleep
      • Non-restorative sleep
      • Sleep hygiene
      • Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia
    • Sleep-related breathing disorders
      • Obstructive sleep apnea
      • Central sleep apnea
      • Continuous positive airway pressure
      • Weight loss
    • Parasomnias
      • Nightmare disorder
      • Sleep terror disorder
      • Sleepwalking disorder
      • REM sleep behavior disorder

  7. Sexual Disorders

     3 topics
    • Sexual dysfunctions
      • Erectile dysfunction
      • Premature ejaculation
      • Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
      • Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
    • Paraphilic disorders
      • Exhibitionism
      • Voyeurism
      • Fetishism
      • Pedophilia
      • Sexual masochism/sadism
    • Gender dysphoria
      • Incongruence between assigned gender and experienced gender
      • Clinical features
      • Psychosocial support
      • Hormone therapy
      • Gender-affirming surgery

  8. Geriatric Psychiatry

     3 topics
    • Dementia
      • Alzheimer's disease
      • Vascular dementia
      • Lewy body dementia
      • Frontotemporal dementia
      • Management (cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine)
    • Delirium
      • Clinical features
      • Etiology (infection, medication, metabolic disturbances)
      • Management (identifying and treating underlying causes)
    • Late-life depression
      • Clinical features
      • Risk factors
      • Management (antidepressant medications, psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy)

  9. Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

     4 topics
    • Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
      • Clinical features
      • Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
      • Management (stimulant medications, behavioral therapy)
    • Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
      • Core features
      • Diagnosis (DSM-5 criteria)
      • Management (behavioral interventions, social skills training)
    • Conduct disorder
      • Clinical features
      • Diagnostic criteria (DSM-5)
      • Management (parent management training, cognitive-behavioral therapy)
    • Pediatric anxiety disorders
      • Separation anxiety disorder
      • Generalized anxiety disorder
      • Social anxiety disorder
      • Management (cognitive-behavioral therapy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

  10. Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry

     3 topics
    • Mental health legislation
      • Involuntary hospitalization
      • Capacity to consent
      • Confidentiality
    • Ethical principles in psychiatry
      • Autonomy
      • Beneficence
      • Nonmaleficence
      • Justice
    • Forensic psychiatry
      • Assessment of competency
      • Criminal responsibility
      • Civil commitment

NEET PG Psychiatry flashcards — 54 questions with answers

  1. Who is regarded as the 'Father of Modern Psychiatry' for introducing humane, moral treatment by unchaining mental patients in 18th-century Paris?

    Philippe Pinel, who removed the chains of patients at the Bicetre and Salpetriere asylums and promoted moral treatment.

  2. In Indian psychiatry history, which 1912 legislation governed mental asylums before being replaced, and which Acts succeeded it?

    The Indian Lunacy Act, 1912 was replaced by the Mental Health Act, 1987, which was in turn replaced by the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.

  3. How does the WHO define mental health (as more than the absence of disease)?

    A state of well-being in which an individual realizes their own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to contribute to their community.

  4. What is the difference between the terms 'disease', 'illness', and 'disability' in mental health?

    Disease is the objective pathological process, illness is the subjective experience of being unwell, and disability is the resulting limitation in functioning/social roles.

  5. List the major components (domains) assessed in a Mental Status Examination (MSE).

    Appearance & behaviour, speech, mood & affect, thought (form and content), perception, cognition (orientation, attention, memory), insight, and judgement.

  6. In the MSE, what is the difference between 'mood' and 'affect'?

    Mood is the patient's sustained, subjectively reported emotional state; affect is the examiner's objective observation of the moment-to-moment emotional expression (e.g., blunted, flat, labile).

  7. What is the difference between thought form and thought content disorders, with one example of each?

    Thought form is the way thoughts are organised/connected (e.g., loosening of associations, flight of ideas); thought content is the actual ideas held (e.g., delusions, obsessions).

  8. What key elements should be elicited in a structured psychiatric history?

    Identifying data, chief complaint, history of present illness, past psychiatric and medical history, drug/treatment history, family history, personal/developmental history, premorbid personality, and substance use history.

  9. What does the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) assess and what total score does it yield?

    It is a 30-point bedside screen for global cognition (orientation, registration, attention/calculation, recall, language, visuospatial); scores below ~24 suggest cognitive impairment.

  10. Which psychometric scales are commonly used to rate depression severity and to measure IQ?

    Depression: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D) and Beck Depression Inventory (BDI); IQ: Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) and Stanford-Binet.

  11. What is the difference between a projective and an objective psychological test, with examples?

    Projective tests use ambiguous stimuli to reveal unconscious processes (e.g., Rorschach inkblot, TAT); objective tests use structured, scored items (e.g., MMPI, WAIS).

  12. What are the DSM-5 criteria duration thresholds for a Major Depressive Episode versus a Manic Episode?

    Major depressive episode: 5+ symptoms for at least 2 weeks; manic episode: elevated/irritable mood plus 3+ (4 if irritable) symptoms for at least 1 week (or any duration if hospitalisation needed).

  13. How is Bipolar I distinguished from Bipolar II disorder?

    Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode plus at least one major depressive episode, with no full mania ever.

  14. What is the duration criterion that defines persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) and cyclothymia?

    Dysthymia: depressed mood most days for at least 2 years (1 year in children/adolescents); cyclothymia: fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least 2 years without meeting full episode criteria.

  15. What is the first-line drug class for major depressive disorder, and name the gold-standard treatment for severe/treatment-resistant depression with psychotic features?

    SSRIs are first-line; electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the gold standard for severe, treatment-resistant, or psychotic depression and high suicide risk.

  16. What are the core features and time criterion of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

    Excessive, hard-to-control worry about multiple events on more days than not for at least 6 months, with symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance.

  17. Differentiate a panic attack from panic disorder.

    A panic attack is a discrete surge of intense fear peaking within minutes; panic disorder is recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus at least 1 month of persistent worry about further attacks or maladaptive behaviour change.

  18. What is agoraphobia and how does it relate to panic disorder?

    Agoraphobia is marked fear/avoidance of situations where escape is difficult or help unavailable (crowds, open spaces, public transport); it frequently co-occurs with panic disorder but is a separate DSM-5 diagnosis.

  19. What are the first-line pharmacological and psychological treatments for most anxiety disorders?

    First-line pharmacotherapy is SSRIs/SNRIs (benzodiazepines only for short-term use); first-line psychotherapy is cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), including exposure techniques.

  20. State the DSM-5 'A' criterion symptoms and minimum duration for schizophrenia.

    Two or more of: delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech, grossly disorganised/catatonic behaviour, negative symptoms (at least one must be one of the first three), with continuous signs for at least 6 months (active phase at least 1 month).

Show the other 34 Psychiatry flashcards

  1. How are schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder, and schizophrenia distinguished by duration?

    Brief psychotic disorder: at least 1 day to less than 1 month; schizophreniform: 1 to less than 6 months; schizophrenia: at least 6 months.

  2. Differentiate positive from negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

    Positive symptoms are excesses/distortions (delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech); negative symptoms are deficits (alogia, avolition, anhedonia, affective flattening, asociality).

  3. Which neurotransmitter hypothesis underlies schizophrenia, and how do typical vs atypical antipsychotics differ?

    The dopamine hypothesis (mesolimbic D2 overactivity). Typical antipsychotics are potent D2 blockers (more EPS); atypicals block D2 and 5-HT2A, treating negative symptoms better with fewer EPS.

  4. What is the CAGE questionnaire used to screen for, and what score is significant?

    It screens for alcohol use disorder: Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener; a score of 2 or more (out of 4) is clinically significant.

  5. What is the drug of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens, and which vitamin must be given to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy?

    Benzodiazepines (e.g., chlordiazepoxide/lorazepam) for withdrawal; thiamine (vitamin B1) given before glucose to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.

  6. Name the classic triad of Wernicke encephalopathy.

    Confusion (encephalopathy), ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, and ataxia, due to thiamine deficiency.

  7. What is the difference between intellectual disability and a specific learning disorder?

    Intellectual disability is global deficit in intellectual and adaptive functioning with onset in the developmental period; specific learning disorder is impairment in a specific academic skill (e.g., dyslexia) with otherwise normal intelligence.

  8. What are the three clusters of personality disorders in DSM-5 with one example each?

    Cluster A (odd/eccentric: paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal); Cluster B (dramatic/erratic: antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic); Cluster C (anxious/fearful: avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive).

  9. What are the hallmark features of borderline personality disorder?

    Pervasive instability of affect, identity, and relationships; impulsivity, recurrent self-harm/suicidal behaviour, chronic emptiness, fear of abandonment, and transient stress-related paranoia/dissociation.

  10. What is the core feature of somatic symptom disorder versus illness anxiety disorder?

    Somatic symptom disorder: distressing somatic symptoms plus excessive thoughts/behaviours about them; illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis): preoccupation with having/acquiring a serious illness with minimal or no somatic symptoms.

  11. What is conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)?

    Neurological symptoms (e.g., weakness, blindness, non-epileptic seizures) incompatible with recognised disease, often with 'la belle indifference', not intentionally produced.

  12. Differentiate dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder, and depersonalization/derealization disorder.

    Dissociative amnesia: inability to recall important (usually traumatic) personal information; dissociative identity disorder: two or more distinct personality states with memory gaps; depersonalization/derealization: persistent feelings of detachment from self or surroundings with intact reality testing.

  13. What are the diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa and its two subtypes?

    Restriction of intake leading to significantly low body weight, intense fear of weight gain, and distorted body image; subtypes are restricting type and binge-eating/purging type.

  14. How does bulimia nervosa differ from anorexia nervosa?

    Bulimia features recurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviours (vomiting, laxatives, exercise) at least weekly for 3 months, but body weight is typically normal or above; anorexia is defined by significantly low weight.

  15. What is binge-eating disorder and how is it distinguished from bulimia nervosa?

    Recurrent binge eating with loss of control and distress, at least weekly for 3 months, but WITHOUT regular compensatory behaviours (unlike bulimia).

  16. What is the classic electrolyte/sign associated with self-induced vomiting in bulimia nervosa?

    Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis; signs include Russell's sign (calluses on knuckles), dental erosion, and parotid gland enlargement.

  17. What are the diagnostic criteria for insomnia disorder?

    Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity/quality (difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early awakening) at least 3 nights/week for at least 3 months, causing distress/impairment despite adequate opportunity to sleep.

  18. What is the hallmark of obstructive sleep apnea and its first-line treatment?

    Repetitive upper-airway collapse causing apneas/hypopneas with snoring and daytime sleepiness; first-line treatment is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

  19. Differentiate the NREM parasomnias (sleepwalking, sleep terrors) from REM sleep behaviour disorder.

    NREM parasomnias arise from deep slow-wave sleep early in the night with no dream recall and amnesia; REM sleep behaviour disorder occurs in late-night REM with dream enactment and recall, and is linked to alpha-synucleinopathies (e.g., Parkinson disease).

  20. What are the four phases of the normal human sexual response cycle (Masters and Johnson)?

    Excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution (Kaplan added a 'desire' phase preceding these).

  21. Name common sexual dysfunctions and the drug class used for erectile dysfunction.

    Examples: erectile disorder, premature/delayed ejaculation, female orgasmic disorder, hypoactive sexual desire; erectile dysfunction is treated first-line with PDE-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil).

  22. What defines a paraphilic disorder (as opposed to a paraphilia)?

    A paraphilia (atypical sexual interest) becomes a paraphilic disorder only when it causes distress/impairment to the individual or harm/risk to others (e.g., pedophilic, exhibitionistic, voyeuristic disorder).

  23. What is gender dysphoria in DSM-5?

    Marked incongruence between one's experienced/expressed gender and assigned gender for at least 6 months, causing clinically significant distress or impairment.

  24. What is the most common cause of dementia and its characteristic histopathology?

    Alzheimer disease; histology shows extracellular beta-amyloid (senile) plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau, with cholinergic deficit.

  25. Contrast the clinical features of dementia versus delirium.

    Dementia: gradual onset, progressive, stable/clear consciousness, chronic course. Delirium: acute onset, fluctuating course, impaired/clouded consciousness and attention, often reversible with an identifiable medical cause.

  26. What drug classes are used to treat Alzheimer dementia by stage?

    Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) for mild-to-moderate disease; the NMDA antagonist memantine for moderate-to-severe disease.

  27. Why is late-life (geriatric) depression often missed, and what is a key concern?

    It commonly presents with somatic complaints and cognitive impairment ('pseudodementia') rather than sadness; a key concern is the high completed-suicide rate in elderly patients.

  28. What are the DSM-5 core symptom domains and age-of-onset criterion for ADHD?

    Inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity present in 2+ settings; several symptoms must be present before age 12, lasting at least 6 months. First-line treatment is stimulants (methylphenidate/amphetamines).

  29. What are the two core diagnostic domains of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?

    Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, AND restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities; onset in the early developmental period.

  30. Differentiate conduct disorder from oppositional defiant disorder, and note the adult diagnosis it may precede.

    Oppositional defiant disorder is a pattern of angry/argumentative, defiant behaviour; conduct disorder involves repetitive violation of others' rights and major societal norms (aggression, theft, destruction). Conduct disorder before age 15 is required for adult antisocial personality disorder.

  31. What is separation anxiety disorder in children and its required duration?

    Developmentally excessive fear/distress about separation from attachment figures (e.g., refusal to go to school, nightmares, somatic complaints), lasting at least 4 weeks in children/adolescents.

  32. Under India's Mental Healthcare Act 2017, what major rights and provisions were introduced regarding suicide and treatment preferences?

    It decriminalised attempted suicide (presumed to be under severe stress), guaranteed the right to access mental healthcare, and allowed an Advance Directive and a Nominated Representative for treatment decisions.

  33. Name the four core principles of medical/psychiatric ethics.

    Autonomy (respecting the patient's right to decide), beneficence (acting for the patient's good), non-maleficence (do no harm), and justice (fairness in distribution of care).

  34. In forensic psychiatry, what is the legal standard tested by the M'Naghten Rule for the insanity defence?

    At the time of the act, due to a defect of reason from disease of the mind, the accused did not know the nature/quality of the act, or did not know that it was wrong. In India this corresponds to Section 84 IPC (act of a person of unsound mind).

Same Psychiatry syllabus in other exams

The Psychiatry outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

NEET PG Psychiatry FAQ

What is in the NEET PG Psychiatry syllabus?

NEET PG Psychiatry is split into 10 chapters: Introduction to Psychiatry, Psychological Assessment, Psychiatric Disorders, Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders, Eating Disorders, Sleep Disorders, Sexual Disorders, Geriatric Psychiatry, Child and Adolescent Psychiatry and Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychiatry. Together they contain 32 topics and 130 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NEET PG Psychiatry?

10 chapters, containing 32 topics and 130 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Psychiatric Disorders, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for NEET PG Psychiatry?

Yes — a 54-card Psychiatry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.