🇮🇳 NEET PG · subject

NEET PG ENT Syllabus

The ENT syllabus for NEET PG in full: 10 chapters, 32 topics and 96 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 ENT flashcards with answers.

10Chapters

32Topics

96Sub-topics

52Flashcards

ENT syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Anatomy and Physiology
2 topics
- Anatomy of the ear, nose, throat, and related structures
  - External ear
  - Middle ear
  - Inner ear
  - Nasal cavity
  - Paranasal sinuses
  - Pharynx
  - Larynx
  - Trachea
- Physiology of hearing, balance, smell, taste, and speech production
Otology
5 topics
- Ear examination
  - Otoscopy
  - Tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne tests)
  - Audiometry
- Outer ear disorders
  - Otitis externa
  - Foreign body in the ear
  - Trauma to the external ear
- Middle ear disorders
  - Acute otitis media
  - Chronic otitis media
  - Otosclerosis
  - Tympanic membrane perforation
- Inner ear disorders
  - Meniere's disease
  - Vestibular neuritis
  - Labyrinthitis
- Hearing loss
  - Conductive hearing loss
  - Sensorineural hearing loss
  - Mixed hearing loss
  - Evaluation and management
Rhinology
4 topics
- Nasal examination
  - Anterior rhinoscopy
  - Endoscopy
  - Imaging (CT scan, MRI)
- Nasal obstruction
  - Deviated nasal septum
  - Nasal polyps
  - Allergic rhinitis
  - Nasal tumors
- Sinusitis
  - Acute sinusitis
  - Chronic sinusitis
  - Fungal sinusitis
  - Complications of sinusitis
- Epistaxis
  - Causes
  - Evaluation
  - Management of anterior and posterior epistaxis
Laryngology
4 topics
- Laryngeal examination
  - Indirect laryngoscopy
  - Direct laryngoscopy
  - Flexible laryngoscopy
- Voice disorders
  - Hoarseness
  - Dysphonia
  - Vocal cord nodules
  - Vocal cord paralysis
  - Laryngeal tumors
- Laryngopharyngeal reflux
  - Clinical features
  - Diagnosis
  - Management
- Stridor
  - Causes of inspiratory and expiratory stridor
  - Evaluation
  - Management
Head and Neck Surgery
4 topics
- Neck masses
  - Evaluation and management of cervical lymphadenopathy
  - Evaluation and management of thyroid nodules
  - Evaluation and management of salivary gland tumors
- Thyroid surgery
  - Thyroidectomy for benign and malignant thyroid disorders
  - Lobectomy for benign and malignant thyroid disorders
  - Isthmectomy for benign and malignant thyroid disorders
- Parathyroid surgery
  - Parathyroidectomy for hyperparathyroidism
- Head and neck cancer
  - Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck
  - Management principles
  - Surgical approaches
Pediatric Otorhinolaryngology
3 topics
- Pediatric ear disorders
  - Otitis media with effusion
  - Acute otitis media
  - Congenital hearing loss
- Pediatric nasal and sinus disorders
  - Choanal atresia
  - Adenoid hypertrophy
  - Nasal foreign bodies
- Pediatric airway disorders
  - Laryngomalacia
  - Tracheomalacia
  - Congenital laryngeal anomalies
Audiology and Vestibular Disorders
3 topics
- Audiological evaluation
  - Pure tone audiometry
  - Speech audiometry
  - Tympanometry
  - Auditory brainstem response (ABR)
- Vertigo and dizziness
  - Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
  - Vestibular neuritis
  - Meniere's disease
  - Vestibular migraine
- Vestibular testing
  - Caloric testing
  - Vestibular evoked myogenic potentials (VEMP)
  - Rotary chair testing
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
3 topics
- Clinical features
- Diagnosis
  - Polysomnography
- Management
  - Continuous positive airway pressure
  - Surgical options
Allergy and Immunology
2 topics
- Allergic rhinitis
  - Clinical features
  - Allergen testing
  - Management
- Immunodeficiency disorders
  - Evaluation and management of primary and secondary immunodeficiencies affecting the upper respiratory tract
Emergency Otorhinolaryngology
2 topics
- Airway management
  - Assessment and management of upper airway obstruction
  - Foreign body aspiration
  - Epiglottitis
- Facial trauma
  - Evaluation and management of facial fractures
  - Nasal fractures
  - Laryngeal trauma

NEET PG ENT flashcards — 52 questions with answers

Which nerve provides sensory innervation to most of the external auditory canal and is responsible for the cough/vasovagal reflex during ear examination (Arnold's reflex)?
The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X, Arnold's nerve). Stimulation can cause reflex coughing or syncope.
Name the three ossicles of the middle ear in order from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.
Malleus, incus, and stapes. The stapes footplate sits in the oval window.
What is the function of the Eustachian tube, and which muscle opens it during swallowing?
It equalizes middle ear pressure with atmospheric pressure and drains middle ear secretions. The tensor veli palatini opens it during swallowing/yawning.
Which structure of the inner ear is responsible for hearing, and which cells transduce sound?
The cochlea (organ of Corti) is responsible for hearing. The hair cells (inner and outer) transduce mechanical vibration into neural signals.
Describe the place theory of hearing regarding frequency localization in the cochlea.
The base of the cochlea detects high frequencies; the apex (helicotrema end) detects low frequencies. Position along the basilar membrane encodes pitch.
Which cranial nerves carry taste, and from which parts of the tongue?
Anterior two-thirds: facial nerve (chorda tympani, CN VII). Posterior one-third: glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). Epiglottis/base: vagus (CN X).
What is the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss in terms of Rinne and Weber tests?
Conductive: Rinne negative (BC>AC) on affected ear; Weber lateralizes to affected ear. Sensorineural: Rinne positive (AC>BC); Weber lateralizes to the better (normal) ear.
In a normal Rinne test, how do air conduction and bone conduction compare?
Air conduction is greater than bone conduction (AC > BC), i.e., Rinne positive — heard about twice as long by air.
What is otitis externa, and what is the most common bacterial cause?
Diffuse inflammation/infection of the external auditory canal ('swimmer's ear'). Most common bacterial cause is Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Staphylococcus aureus is also common.
What is malignant (necrotizing) otitis externa, who gets it, and the typical organism?
An aggressive osteomyelitis of the temporal bone/skull base, typically in elderly diabetics or immunocompromised patients. Caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa; can cause cranial nerve palsies (especially facial nerve).
What organism causes otomycosis, and what is the characteristic finding?
Most commonly Aspergillus niger (also Candida). Characteristic finding is wet blotting-paper appearance with black/white fungal hyphae and 'pepper'-like dots in the canal.
What is acute otitis media (AOM), and what are the three most common bacterial pathogens?
Acute suppurative infection of the middle ear. Top pathogens: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae (non-typeable), and Moraxella catarrhalis.
What is otitis media with effusion (glue ear), and what is its main clinical consequence in children?
Non-suppurative middle ear fluid behind an intact tympanic membrane without acute infection. Causes conductive hearing loss and possible speech/language delay; managed with grommets if persistent.
Differentiate the two types of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM).
Tubotympanic (safe/mucosal) type: central perforation, mucosal disease, low complication risk. Atticoantral (unsafe/squamous) type: marginal/attic perforation with cholesteatoma, high risk of complications.
What is a cholesteatoma?
A destructive accumulation of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium in the middle ear/mastoid. It erodes bone, can cause complications, and is treated surgically (mastoidectomy).
What is otosclerosis and its hallmark clinical features?
Abnormal bone remodeling fixing the stapes footplate at the oval window, causing conductive hearing loss. Features: progressive hearing loss in young adults, positive family history, paracusis Willisii, and Schwartze sign (pink promontory).
What are the classic clinical triad/features of Meniere's disease?
Episodic vertigo (minutes to hours), fluctuating low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus, often with aural fullness. Caused by endolymphatic hydrops.
What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), and the diagnostic and treatment maneuvers?
Brief vertigo triggered by head position changes due to canalith debris (usually posterior semicircular canal). Diagnosed with Dix-Hallpike test; treated with Epley repositioning maneuver.
How is vestibular neuritis distinguished from labyrinthitis?
Vestibular neuritis: acute vertigo WITHOUT hearing loss (vestibular nerve only). Labyrinthitis: vertigo WITH hearing loss/tinnitus (whole labyrinth involved).
What is an acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma), and which condition associates with bilateral tumors?
A benign Schwann cell tumor of the vestibular portion of CN VIII at the cerebellopontine angle. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are pathognomonic of Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2).

Show the other 32 ENT flashcards

What is presbycusis?
Age-related, bilateral, symmetrical, progressive high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss due to degeneration of cochlear hair cells (and stria/neurons).
What is the characteristic audiogram finding in noise-induced hearing loss?
A notch in the sensorineural threshold at 4000 Hz (4 kHz dip), often bilateral.
What is the most common cause of unilateral nasal obstruction with foul discharge in a young child?
A nasal foreign body — classically causes unilateral foul-smelling, often blood-stained nasal discharge.
What is the most common site of anterior epistaxis?
Little's area (Kiesselbach's plexus) on the anteroinferior nasal septum, where multiple arteries anastomose.
Which artery is the major source of posterior epistaxis, and how is it managed if conservative measures fail?
The sphenopalatine artery (terminal branch of maxillary artery). Managed with posterior nasal packing, balloon tamponade, or endoscopic sphenopalatine artery ligation/embolization.
What are the cardinal symptoms of allergic rhinitis and the underlying immune mechanism?
Sneezing, rhinorrhea, nasal itching, and congestion. It is an IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reaction with mast cell histamine release.
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for moderate-to-severe persistent allergic rhinitis?
Intranasal corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone, mometasone) are the most effective first-line therapy; oral/intranasal antihistamines are adjuncts.
Name the four paranasal sinuses and which is most commonly involved in sinusitis in adults.
Maxillary, ethmoid, frontal, and sphenoid sinuses. The maxillary sinus is most commonly affected in adults.
What is the most common organism in chronic invasive fungal sinusitis (mucormycosis), and the key risk factor?
Mucor/Rhizopus (Mucorales). Key risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (ketoacidosis) or immunosuppression; presents with black necrotic eschar and rapid progression.
What is Samter's triad (aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease)?
Nasal polyps, asthma, and aspirin (NSAID) sensitivity/intolerance.
In children, bilateral nasal polyps should raise suspicion for which underlying disease?
Cystic fibrosis. (Antrochoanal polyp is the most common single/unilateral polyp in children.)
What is a juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, who is affected, and a key management caveat?
A benign but locally aggressive, highly vascular tumor of the nasopharynx in adolescent males. Presents with recurrent epistaxis and nasal obstruction; biopsy is contraindicated due to bleeding risk — diagnose by imaging.
What are the components of laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) symptoms, and how do they differ from GERD?
LPR causes hoarseness, throat clearing, globus sensation, chronic cough, and posterior laryngitis. Unlike GERD, heartburn is often ABSENT and symptoms are predominantly upright/extraesophageal.
What is the most common cause of hoarseness in a chronic smoker, and the most important diagnosis to exclude?
Reinke's edema (smoker's polyps) is common, but laryngeal carcinoma must be excluded — any hoarseness lasting >2-3 weeks requires laryngoscopic evaluation.
What are vocal cord nodules ('singer's nodules'), where are they located, and the first-line treatment?
Bilateral, symmetric callus-like lesions at the junction of the anterior and middle thirds of the vocal cords due to voice overuse. First-line treatment is voice therapy/rest.
Which nerve injury causes vocal cord paralysis, and what is the resting position of the cord in unilateral palsy?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus). In unilateral paralysis the cord lies in the paramedian position; bilateral abductor palsy causes stridor/airway obstruction.
What is the most common cause of stridor in a neonate/infant?
Laryngomalacia — floppy supraglottic structures causing inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine/crying and usually resolves by 18-24 months.
Differentiate the stridor of croup, epiglottitis, and a foreign body.
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis): barking cough, inspiratory stridor, viral (parainfluenza). Epiglottitis: rapid toxic onset, drooling, tripod posture, no cough (H. influenzae type b). Foreign body: sudden onset choking, often unilateral wheeze.
What is the most common pediatric airway papilloma cause, and the virus involved?
Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11; presents with hoarseness and stridor.
What is the most common cause of acute epiglottitis and the key radiographic sign?
Historically Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). Lateral neck X-ray shows the 'thumb sign' (swollen epiglottis). Airway management takes priority over examination.
What is the classification of neck masses by the '80% rule' regarding location and cause?
Midline masses (e.g., thyroglossal cyst) tend to be congenital/benign; lateral neck masses in adults >40 are malignant (often metastatic SCC) until proven otherwise; in children most are inflammatory.
What is a thyroglossal duct cyst, and what is its characteristic clinical sign?
A midline neck cyst from a persistent thyroglossal duct. It moves upward with tongue protrusion and swallowing. Treated by Sistrunk operation (excision with central hyoid body).
What is a branchial cleft cyst, where is it located, and which is most common?
A lateral neck cyst at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. The second branchial cleft cyst is the most common type.
What is the most important complication to monitor after thyroidectomy, and the nerves at risk?
Hypocalcemia (from inadvertent parathyroid removal/injury) and airway-threatening hematoma. Nerves at risk: recurrent laryngeal nerve (voice) and external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (pitch).
What sign indicates hypocalcemia (tetany) after parathyroid or thyroid surgery?
Chvostek's sign (facial twitch on tapping the facial nerve) and Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm with BP cuff inflation).
What is the most common histological type of head and neck cancer, and the major risk factors?
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Major risk factors: tobacco and alcohol (synergistic); HPV-16 for oropharyngeal cancers; betel nut/areca for oral cancer.
What is the most common malignant tumor of the larynx, and which subsite has the best prognosis due to poor lymphatic drainage?
Squamous cell carcinoma. The glottic (true vocal cord) subsite has the best prognosis because it has minimal lymphatic drainage and presents early with hoarseness.
What is tympanometry, and what does a Type B (flat) tracing indicate?
Tympanometry measures middle ear compliance/pressure. A Type B flat tracing indicates middle ear effusion or tympanic membrane perforation (a normal volume B = effusion; large volume B = perforation).
In audiological evaluation, what does the speech reception threshold (SRT) and what does pure tone average (PTA) typically include?
PTA is the average of air-conduction thresholds at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz. SRT (lowest level at which 50% of spondee words are repeated) should correlate within ~6-10 dB of the PTA.
What is the head impulse test (HIT) used to evaluate, and what indicates a peripheral lesion?
It tests the vestibulo-ocular reflex. A corrective catch-up saccade after rapid head rotation (abnormal/positive HIT) indicates a peripheral vestibular lesion; a normal HIT in acute vertigo suggests a central cause.
Which immunodeficiency classically presents with recurrent sinopulmonary and ENT infections, and what is the most common primary antibody deficiency?
Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary immunodeficiency, presenting with recurrent sinopulmonary/ENT infections (and risk of anaphylaxis to blood products). Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) also causes recurrent sinopulmonary infections.
In facial trauma, what is the LeFort classification, and what defines a LeFort II fracture?
LeFort fractures classify midface fractures: I = horizontal maxilla (floating palate); II = pyramidal (involving nasal bridge, infraorbital rims, maxilla); III = craniofacial disjunction (separating face from skull base).

Same ENT syllabus in other exams

The ENT outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

NEET PG ENT FAQ

What is in the NEET PG ENT syllabus?

NEET PG ENT is split into 10 chapters: Anatomy and Physiology, Otology, Rhinology, Laryngology, Head and Neck Surgery, Pediatric Otorhinolaryngology, Audiology and Vestibular Disorders, Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), Allergy and Immunology and Emergency Otorhinolaryngology. Together they contain 32 topics and 96 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NEET PG ENT?

10 chapters, containing 32 topics and 96 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Otology, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for NEET PG ENT?

Yes — a 52-card ENT deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.