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INI CET Paediatrics Syllabus

The Paediatrics syllabus for INI CET in full: 10 chapters, 38 topics and 85 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Paediatrics flashcards with answers.

10Chapters
38Topics
85Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Paediatrics syllabus: all 10 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Normal Growth and Development

     3 topics
    • Growth parameters
      • Weight
      • Length/Height
      • Head circumference
      • Growth charts
    • Developmental milestones
      • Gross motor
      • Fine motor
      • Language
      • Social
      • Cognitive development
    • Nutritional requirements
      • Breastfeeding
      • Formula feeding
      • Introduction of solid foods
      • Nutritional deficiencies

  2. Neonatology

     3 topics
    • Neonatal resuscitation
      • Initial steps
      • Positive pressure ventilation
      • Chest compressions
      • Medications (epinephrine, naloxone)
    • Neonatal jaundice
      • Physiological jaundice
      • Pathological jaundice
      • Kernicterus
      • Management (phototherapy, exchange transfusion)
    • Neonatal infections
      • Neonatal sepsis
      • Pneumonia
      • Meningitis
      • Congenital infections (TORCH infections)

  3. Infectious Diseases

     4 topics
    • Respiratory infections
      • Bronchiolitis
      • Pneumonia (viral, bacterial)
      • Croup
      • Pertussis
    • Gastrointestinal infections
      • Acute gastroenteritis
      • Rotavirus infection
      • Hepatitis A
      • Typhoid fever
    • Central nervous system infections
      • Meningitis (bacterial, viral)
      • Encephalitis
      • Febrile seizures
    • Vaccine-preventable diseases
      • Diphtheria
      • Tetanus
      • Pertussis
      • Measles
      • Mumps
      • Rubella
      • Polio
      • Hepatitis B
      • Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
      • Pneumococcal disease
      • Meningococcal disease
      • Varicella
      • Influenza
      • Human papillomavirus (HPV)

  4. Respiratory Disorders

     3 topics
    • Asthma
      • Pathophysiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis: Spirometry
      • Diagnosis: Peak Flow Meter
      • Management: Inhaled Corticosteroids
      • Management: Bronchodilators
    • Bronchiolitis
      • Etiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis
      • Management: Supportive Care
      • Management: Oxygen Therapy
    • Cystic fibrosis
      • Pathophysiology
      • Clinical Features
      • Diagnosis: Sweat Chloride Test
      • Management: Airway Clearance Techniques
      • Management: Pancreatic Enzyme Replacement

  5. Gastroenterology and Nutrition

     3 topics
    • Diarrheal diseases
      • Acute diarrhea
      • Persistent diarrhea
      • Chronic diarrhea: Inflammatory bowel disease
      • Chronic diarrhea: Celiac disease
    • Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
      • Clinical features
      • Diagnosis (pH monitoring)
      • Management: Lifestyle modification
      • Management: Proton pump inhibitors
    • Malnutrition
      • Marasmus
      • Kwashiorkor
      • Vitamin A deficiency
      • Iron deficiency anemia
      • Nutritional rehabilitation

  6. Congenital heart diseases

     5 topics
    • Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
    • Atrial septal defect (ASD)
    • Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
    • Tetralogy of Fallot
    • Coarctation of the aorta

  7. Febrile seizures

     4 topics
    • Simple febrile seizures
    • Complex febrile seizures
    • Risk factors
    • Management

  8. Acute kidney injury (AKI)

     4 topics
    • Etiology
    • Clinical features
    • Diagnosis
      • Serum creatinine
      • Urine output
    • Management

  9. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

     4 topics
    • Pathophysiology
    • Clinical features
    • Diagnosis
      • Blood glucose
      • HbA1c
    • Management
      • Insulin therapy
      • Carbohydrate counting

  10. Allergic disorders

     5 topics
    • Allergic rhinitis
    • Allergic conjunctivitis
    • Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
    • Food allergies
    • Anaphylaxis

INI CET Paediatrics flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What is the formula to estimate weight (in kg) for a child aged 1-6 years?

    Weight (kg) = (Age in years x 2) + 8.

  2. By what ages does a child's birth weight typically double and triple?

    Doubles by ~5 months and triples by ~1 year (quadruples by ~2 years).

  3. What is the expected head circumference at birth and at 1 year?

    ~35 cm at birth, increasing to ~47 cm at 1 year (about 2 cm/month for first 3 months, then slower).

  4. At what age does a normal child usually achieve social smile, head holding, sitting without support, and walking independently?

    Social smile ~2 months, head holding ~3 months, sitting without support ~6-8 months, independent walking ~12-15 months.

  5. What gross motor milestone is expected at 9 months versus 12 months?

    9 months: crawls and stands holding furniture (cruising begins). 12 months: stands alone and may take first independent steps.

  6. Name the four domains assessed in developmental milestone evaluation.

    Gross motor, fine motor (adaptive), language, and social/personal-behavioural.

  7. What fine motor milestone is expected at 9 months and at 12 months?

    9 months: immature pincer grasp. 12 months: mature pincer grasp and releases objects voluntarily.

  8. At what age does a child typically speak 2-3 words with meaning, and form 2-3 word sentences?

    2-3 meaningful words by ~12 months; 2-3 word sentences by ~2 years.

  9. What are the daily fluid requirements by the Holliday-Segar method?

    100 mL/kg for first 10 kg, 50 mL/kg for next 10 kg, 20 mL/kg for each kg above 20 kg.

  10. What are the recommended daily calorie and protein requirements for an infant in the first year?

    ~100-110 kcal/kg/day and ~1.5-2 g/kg/day of protein in infancy.

  11. Until what age is exclusive breastfeeding recommended, and when should complementary feeding begin?

    Exclusive breastfeeding until 6 months; introduce complementary feeding at 6 months while continuing breastfeeding up to 2 years.

  12. What is the correct sequence of steps in neonatal resuscitation per NRP?

    Initial steps (warm, dry, stimulate, position, clear airway) -> positive pressure ventilation if apnoeic/HR<100 -> chest compressions if HR<60 despite 30s effective PPV -> epinephrine if HR<60 after compressions.

  13. What compression-to-ventilation ratio is used in neonatal resuscitation, and at what heart rate are chest compressions started?

    3:1 ratio (90 compressions and 30 breaths per minute); compressions started when HR remains <60/min after 30 seconds of effective ventilation.

  14. What target oxygen saturation is expected and what initial FiO2 is recommended for a term newborn resuscitation?

    Start with room air (21% FiO2) for term infants; preductal SpO2 targets rise from ~60-65% at 1 min to ~85-95% by 10 min.

  15. What is the dose and preferred route of epinephrine in neonatal resuscitation?

    0.01-0.03 mg/kg (0.1-0.3 mL/kg of 1:10,000) via the umbilical vein (IV preferred); endotracheal dose 0.05-0.1 mg/kg if IV access not yet available.

  16. Differentiate physiological from pathological neonatal jaundice.

    Physiological: appears after 24h, peaks day 3-5, unconjugated, resolves by 1-2 weeks. Pathological: appears <24h, rises >5 mg/dL/day, total bilirubin >15 mg/dL, conjugated >2 mg/dL, or persists >2 weeks.

  17. What is the dreaded complication of severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia and why does it occur?

    Kernicterus (bilirubin encephalopathy) - unconjugated bilirubin is lipid-soluble, crosses the blood-brain barrier, and deposits in the basal ganglia.

  18. What are the main treatment modalities for neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia?

    Phototherapy (converts bilirubin to water-soluble isomers) and exchange transfusion for severe/rapidly rising levels; treat underlying cause.

  19. What is the most common cause of jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life?

    Haemolysis - most commonly Rh or ABO isoimmunisation (always pathological).

  20. What are the components of the TORCH group of congenital infections?

    Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis, varicella, parvovirus B19, HIV), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex virus.

Show the other 31 Paediatrics flashcards

  1. What are the two clinical patterns and most common organisms of neonatal sepsis?

    Early-onset (<72h, vertical: Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria) and late-onset (>72h, nosocomial/community: coagulase-negative staph, S. aureus, Klebsiella).

  2. What is the most common cause of meningitis in neonates?

    Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae), followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes.

  3. What is the most common bacterial cause of acute otitis media and community-acquired pneumonia in children?

    Streptococcus pneumoniae.

  4. What clinical features distinguish viral bronchiolitis-causing pathogens, and what is the most common cause?

    Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the most common cause of bronchiolitis; features include wheeze, crackles, tachypnoea, and hyperinflation in infants <2 years.

  5. What is the most common cause of acute viral gastroenteritis in children, and what vaccine prevents it?

    Rotavirus is the most common cause; rotavirus vaccine (oral, live) prevents it.

  6. What are the classic CSF findings differentiating bacterial from viral meningitis?

    Bacterial: high neutrophils, high protein, low glucose, high opening pressure. Viral: lymphocytes, normal/mildly raised protein, normal glucose.

  7. List the diseases covered by the pentavalent vaccine.

    Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (DPT + HepB + Hib).

  8. At what age is the BCG vaccine given and what does it protect against?

    Given at birth; protects against severe forms of tuberculosis (miliary TB and TB meningitis).

  9. What is the pathognomonic clinical sign of measles, and what vaccine prevents it?

    Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa); prevented by the measles (MMR/MR) vaccine.

  10. What is the pathophysiology of asthma?

    Chronic airway inflammation with reversible bronchoconstriction, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, mucosal oedema, and mucus hypersecretion causing airflow obstruction.

  11. What is the first-line reliever and the first-line controller therapy for childhood asthma?

    Reliever: short-acting beta-2 agonist (e.g., salbutamol). Controller: inhaled corticosteroids.

  12. How is bronchiolitis primarily managed?

    Supportive care - oxygen, hydration, and nasal suction; bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics are generally not recommended.

  13. What is the inheritance pattern and underlying defect in cystic fibrosis?

    Autosomal recessive; mutation in the CFTR gene (commonly delta F508) impairing chloride transport, causing thick secretions.

  14. What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis?

    The sweat chloride test (elevated sweat chloride >60 mmol/L is diagnostic).

  15. What is the WHO classification of dehydration severity in diarrhoeal disease?

    No dehydration (Plan A), some/moderate dehydration (Plan B - ORS), and severe dehydration (Plan C - IV fluids).

  16. What is the composition rationale of low-osmolarity ORS and its recommended use?

    Reduced sodium and glucose (245 mOsm/L) decreasing stool output and vomiting; used to prevent/treat dehydration in diarrhoea, with zinc supplementation for 14 days.

  17. What are the clinical features and first-line management of GERD in infants?

    Regurgitation, irritability, feeding refusal, failure to thrive; managed with positional/feeding measures and thickened feeds first, then PPIs/H2 blockers if pathological.

  18. Differentiate marasmus from kwashiorkor.

    Marasmus: severe wasting, no oedema, marked weight loss (deficiency of all nutrients). Kwashiorkor: oedema, hepatomegaly, skin/hair changes, relatively preserved weight (protein deficiency).

  19. What WHO criteria define severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children 6-59 months?

    Weight-for-height <-3 SD, MUAC <11.5 cm, or bilateral pitting oedema.

  20. What is the most common congenital heart defect overall, and is it cyanotic or acyanotic?

    Ventricular septal defect (VSD); it is an acyanotic, left-to-right shunt lesion.

  21. What murmur characterises a VSD, and what is its potential late complication?

    Harsh pansystolic (holosystolic) murmur at the left lower sternal border; can lead to pulmonary hypertension and Eisenmenger syndrome if uncorrected.

  22. What is the characteristic auscultatory finding of an atrial septal defect (ASD)?

    Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound (S2) with an ejection systolic murmur at the pulmonary area.

  23. What clinical sign and murmur are characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

    Continuous 'machinery' murmur (best at left infraclavicular area) with wide pulse pressure and bounding pulses.

  24. What are the four anatomical components of Tetralogy of Fallot?

    1) Ventricular septal defect, 2) Overriding aorta, 3) Pulmonary stenosis (RV outflow obstruction), 4) Right ventricular hypertrophy.

  25. What is a 'tet spell' and how is it managed acutely?

    A hypercyanotic episode in Tetralogy of Fallot; managed by knee-chest position, oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, and beta-blockers/phenylephrine to increase systemic vascular resistance.

  26. What classic radiographic signs are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot and coarctation of the aorta?

    Tetralogy of Fallot: 'boot-shaped' heart. Coarctation: 'figure-3' sign and rib notching on chest X-ray.

  27. What is the classic clinical finding of coarctation of the aorta on examination?

    Radio-femoral delay with upper-limb hypertension and weak/delayed lower-limb pulses (blood pressure higher in arms than legs).

  28. What are the diagnostic criteria for a SIMPLE febrile seizure?

    Generalised, lasting <15 minutes, occurring once in 24 hours, in a child 6 months-5 years with fever and no CNS infection or focal neurological deficit.

  29. How does a COMPLEX febrile seizure differ from a simple one, and what is its significance?

    Complex: focal, lasts >15 minutes, or recurs within 24 hours; associated with higher risk of later epilepsy and warrants further evaluation.

  30. What are the first-line treatments for allergic rhinitis and anaphylaxis in children?

    Allergic rhinitis: intranasal corticosteroids (and oral antihistamines). Anaphylaxis: intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.01 mg/kg into the anterolateral thigh, given immediately.

  31. What is atopic dermatitis (eczema), its hallmark feature, and how does its distribution change with age?

    A chronic, relapsing, itchy inflammatory skin condition (intense pruritus is the hallmark); affects face/extensor surfaces in infants and flexural areas (antecubital/popliteal fossae) in older children.

Same Paediatrics syllabus in other exams

The Paediatrics outline above is identical in these 3 exams:

INI CET Paediatrics FAQ

What is in the INI CET Paediatrics syllabus?

INI CET Paediatrics is split into 10 chapters: Normal Growth and Development, Neonatology, Infectious Diseases, Respiratory Disorders, Gastroenterology and Nutrition, Congenital heart diseases, Febrile seizures, Acute kidney injury (AKI), Type 1 diabetes mellitus and Allergic disorders. Together they contain 38 topics and 85 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in INI CET Paediatrics?

10 chapters, containing 38 topics and 85 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Congenital heart diseases, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for INI CET Paediatrics?

Yes — a 51-card Paediatrics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.