AIAPGET Homeopathy Practice of Medicine Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Practice of Medicine deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. Differentiate eczema (atopic dermatitis) lesion distribution in infants vs older children.

   Infants: face, scalp, and extensor surfaces. Older children/adults: flexural areas (antecubital and popliteal fossae). Lesions are itchy, dry, erythematous.

2. What is the difference between impetigo and cellulitis?

   Impetigo is a superficial skin infection with honey-coloured crusts (Staph aureus/Strep pyogenes). Cellulitis is a deeper infection of dermis and subcutaneous tissue with spreading erythema, warmth, swelling, and tenderness.

3. Describe the target (iris) lesion and the condition it suggests.

   A target lesion has three concentric zones (central dusky/blister, surrounding pale ring, outer erythema); it is characteristic of erythema multiforme.

4. What is the ABCDE rule for evaluating a suspicious skin mole for melanoma?

   Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolving (changing) lesion.

5. List the core symptom clusters required to diagnose a major depressive episode.

   At least 5 symptoms for >=2 weeks including depressed mood or anhedonia, plus changes in sleep, appetite/weight, energy, concentration, psychomotor activity, guilt/worthlessness, and suicidal ideation.

6. Differentiate the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

   Positive symptoms: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behaviour. Negative symptoms: flat affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, social withdrawal.

7. What distinguishes bipolar I from bipolar II disorder?

   Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode (often with depression). Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode plus at least one major depressive episode, with no full mania.

8. What is the difference between delirium and dementia?

   Delirium has acute onset, fluctuating course, impaired attention/consciousness, and is usually reversible. Dementia has gradual onset, progressive course, clear consciousness, and is usually irreversible.

9. Name the first-line drug class for generalized anxiety disorder.

   SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors); SNRIs are also first-line. Benzodiazepines are for short-term use only.

10. What is anaphylaxis and its first-line treatment?

    Anaphylaxis is a severe, rapid-onset, life-threatening IgE-mediated systemic hypersensitivity reaction. First-line treatment: intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.5 mg (0.01 mg/kg) into the anterolateral thigh.

11. List the classic clinical features of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

    Hyperglycaemia (>250 mg/dL), metabolic acidosis (pH <7.3, bicarbonate <18), ketonaemia/ketonuria, dehydration, Kussmaul breathing, fruity (acetone) breath, abdominal pain, and altered consciousness.

12. What defines the criteria of SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)?

    Two or more of: temperature >38C or <36C; heart rate >90/min; respiratory rate >20/min or PaCO2 <32 mmHg; WBC >12,000 or <4,000 (or >10% bands).

13. What is sepsis (current Sepsis-3 definition)?

    Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, identified clinically by an acute rise in SOFA score >=2 points due to infection.

14. What is the qSOFA score and its components?

    A bedside score predicting poor outcome in suspected infection: respiratory rate >=22/min, altered mentation (GCS <15), and systolic BP <=100 mmHg. Score >=2 suggests high risk.

15. What is the immediate management of an acute asthma attack (severe)?

    High-flow oxygen, nebulised salbutamol (SABA) plus ipratropium, systemic corticosteroids, and IV magnesium sulphate if life-threatening; escalate to ICU if no response.

16. What is the recovery position and when is it used?

    A lateral position with the head tilted to keep the airway open and allow drainage of fluids; used for an unconscious but breathing casualty to prevent aspiration.

17. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio and compression rate in adult CPR?

    30 compressions to 2 breaths, at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute and a depth of 5-6 cm.

18. Describe the Rule of Nines for estimating burn surface area in an adult.

    Head 9%, each arm 9%, anterior trunk 18%, posterior trunk 18%, each leg 18%, perineum 1% (total 100%).

19. What is the immediate first-aid management of a chemical eye burn?

    Immediate copious irrigation of the eye with clean water or saline for at least 15-20 minutes, removing contact lenses, then urgent ophthalmology referral.

20. What is the first-aid treatment for choking in a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction?

    Alternate 5 back blows between the shoulder blades with 5 abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) until the obstruction clears or the person becomes unconscious (then start CPR).

21. What is the formula for calculating the anion gap and its normal value?

    Anion gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-). Normal value is 8-12 mEq/L. A raised anion gap indicates metabolic acidosis (e.g. DKA, lactic acidosis).

22. List the four classes of haemorrhagic (hypovolaemic) shock by blood loss.

    Class I: up to 15% (<750 mL), normal vitals. Class II: 15-30% (750-1500 mL), tachycardia. Class III: 30-40% (1500-2000 mL), hypotension. Class IV: >40% (>2000 mL), severe hypotension, life-threatening.

23. Differentiate the types of shock by their underlying mechanism.

    Hypovolaemic (fluid/blood loss), Cardiogenic (pump failure), Distributive (vasodilation: septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic), and Obstructive (mechanical obstruction: tamponade, tension pneumothorax, PE).

24. What ABG pattern defines Type I vs Type II respiratory failure?

    Type I (hypoxaemic): PaO2 <60 mmHg with normal or low PaCO2. Type II (hypercapnic): PaO2 <60 mmHg with PaCO2 >50 mmHg (ventilatory failure).

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