Architect Registration Examination (ARE) Project Management Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Project Management deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is a responsibility (scope) matrix and what is its purpose?

   A table that lists tasks/deliverables against project parties, indicating who is responsible for each item; it clarifies division of services among the architect, consultants, owner, and others to prevent gaps or overlaps.

2. What does a RACI matrix designate?

   For each task it designates who is Responsible (does the work), Accountable (final authority/owns it), Consulted (provides input), and Informed (kept updated)—clarifying roles and decision authority.

3. Compare Design-Bid-Build (DBB) project delivery to Design-Build (DB).

   In DBB the owner holds separate contracts with the architect and the contractor, with sequential design then bidding then construction. In DB a single entity contracts with the owner to provide both design and construction, offering single-point responsibility and overlapping (faster) delivery.

4. What is Construction Manager at Risk (CMc/CMAR) delivery?

   A delivery method where a construction manager is engaged early to advise during design and then holds the construction contract, typically committing to a Guaranteed Maximum Price (GMP) and assuming the risk of cost overruns above the GMP.

5. Differentiate an agency CM from a CM at-risk.

   An agency CM acts as the owner's advisor/agent for a fee and holds no construction contract or cost risk; a CM at-risk holds the trade contracts, often guarantees a GMP, and bears the risk of overruns.

6. What is a Guaranteed Maximum Price (GMP) contract?

   A contract in which the contractor agrees that the total cost will not exceed a stated maximum; the owner pays actual costs plus fee up to the cap, and savings below the GMP may be shared or returned to the owner.

7. Compare a stipulated sum (lump sum) construction contract with a cost-plus-fee contract.

   In a stipulated sum, the contractor performs the work for a fixed price regardless of actual cost (contractor bears cost risk). In cost-plus-fee, the owner reimburses actual costs plus a fee (owner bears more cost risk), often with a GMP to cap exposure.

8. Why should the project delivery method be aligned with the contract type and owner goals?

   Because delivery and contract choices distribute cost, schedule, and quality risk differently; aligning them with the owner's priorities (speed, budget certainty, design control, single-point responsibility) optimizes outcomes and reduces disputes.

9. What is an indemnification clause in a design contract?

   A provision in which one party agrees to defend, hold harmless, and/or reimburse another for certain losses or claims; for architects, indemnity should be limited to liability arising from their own negligent acts, errors, or omissions.

10. What is a limitation of liability clause and why do architects seek one?

    A clause capping the architect's total liability to the owner (e.g., to the fee or a stated dollar amount); architects seek it to make risk predictable and proportionate to compensation, since fees are small relative to project value.

11. What is a 'waiver of consequential damages' and why is it important?

    A mutual agreement that neither party will be liable to the other for indirect/consequential losses (lost profits, rental income, financing costs, loss of use); it limits exposure to direct damages and is a standard risk-management provision.

12. What are common methods of dispute resolution in construction contracts, in typical order?

    Negotiation, then the architect's or Initial Decision Maker's initial decision, then mediation (typically a required condition precedent), and finally binding arbitration or litigation if the dispute is unresolved.

13. What is the difference between mediation and arbitration?

    Mediation is a non-binding, facilitated negotiation where a neutral helps parties reach a voluntary settlement. Arbitration is an adjudicative process where a neutral arbitrator hears evidence and renders a binding (and generally final) decision.

14. Who is the Initial Decision Maker (IDM) and what is their function?

    The IDM (the architect by default in AIA documents unless otherwise named) is the party who renders the initial decision on claims between owner and contractor before mediation; their decision is a condition precedent to mediation.

15. What are the three main strategies for managing identified project risk?

    Avoid the risk (eliminate the activity or condition), mitigate/reduce it (lower its likelihood or impact), transfer it (insurance, indemnity, contract terms), or accept/retain it knowingly.

16. What two factors are used to prioritize risks in a risk assessment?

    The probability (likelihood) of the risk occurring and the severity (impact/consequence) if it occurs; risk priority is generally probability × impact, focusing attention on high-likelihood, high-impact items.

17. How does professional liability (errors and omissions) insurance manage architect risk?

    It transfers financial risk by covering claims arising from negligent acts, errors, or omissions in professional services, paying defense costs and damages up to policy limits; it is typically written on a claims-made basis.

18. What is a change order and when is it used?

    A change order is a written instrument signed by the owner, contractor, and architect that modifies the contract documents, adjusting the scope, contract sum, and/or contract time after the contract is executed.

19. How does a Construction Change Directive (CCD) differ from a change order?

    A CCD is issued by the owner and architect (without the contractor's agreement) directing a change in the work before price/time are agreed, so work can proceed; a change order requires all parties' signatures and reflects agreed adjustments to sum and time.

20. What is the purpose of a change management procedure?

    To control modifications to scope, cost, and schedule through a defined process of documenting, evaluating, pricing, approving, and recording changes—preventing scope creep and ensuring the contract sum and time are properly adjusted.

21. Distinguish quality assurance (QA) from quality control (QC) in design practice.

    QA comprises the proactive policies, standards, and procedures the firm establishes to prevent errors (process-focused); QC is the reactive checking, reviewing, and correcting of specific deliverables to catch errors (product-focused).

22. What quality-control activities occur throughout the project lifecycle?

    Peer/internal document reviews at each phase, coordination checks between disciplines, constructability and code reviews, specification checks, and field observation/submittal review during construction to verify conformance with the design intent.

23. What activities occur during project closeout?

    Final inspection and punch list completion, securing record (as-built) drawings, collecting warranties, O&M manuals, and guarantees, processing final payment and lien releases, issuing the certificate of substantial completion, and obtaining the certificate of occupancy.

24. What is a post-occupancy evaluation (POE) and why is it valuable?

    A POE is a systematic assessment of a building's performance after the owner occupies it, evaluating user satisfaction, functionality, and systems performance; it provides feedback to improve future designs and verify that project goals were met (often an additional service).

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