Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Women's Health, Pediatrics, and the Lifecycle Syllabus

Women's Health, Pediatrics, and the Lifecycle syllabus — full chapter and topic list

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics. This is the whole examinable outline for Women's Health, Pediatrics, and the Lifecycle in Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA), not a summary of it.

1. 1

   Obstetrics

   4 topics

   • Prenatal Care
     • Routine prenatal screening
     • High-risk pregnancy identification
   • Pregnancy Complications
     • Preeclampsia and gestational diabetes
     • Bleeding in pregnancy
   • Labor and Delivery
     • Stages of labor and fetal monitoring
     • Obstetric emergencies
   • Postpartum Care
     • Postpartum hemorrhage and depression
2. 2

   Gynecology

   4 topics

   • Menstrual Disorders
     • Abnormal uterine bleeding
     • Amenorrhea and dysmenorrhea
   • Contraception and Family Planning
     • Hormonal and non-hormonal methods
   • Gynecologic Infections and Neoplasia
     • Pelvic inflammatory disease
     • Cervical and ovarian cancer screening
   • Menopause and Pelvic Disorders
     • Menopausal management
     • Pelvic organ prolapse
3. 3

   Pediatrics

   4 topics

   • Neonatal Care
     • Newborn assessment and resuscitation
     • Neonatal jaundice
   • Growth and Development
     • Developmental milestones
     • Failure to thrive
   • Common Pediatric Illnesses
     • Respiratory and febrile illness
     • Childhood exanthems
   • Pediatric Emergencies and Genetics
     • Congenital and genetic syndromes
     • Child abuse recognition
4. 4

   Adolescent and Reproductive Health

   3 topics

   • Adolescent Medicine
     • Puberty and confidentiality
   • Sexual and Reproductive Health
     • Sexually transmitted infections
   • Osteopathic Care in Pregnancy and Pediatrics
     • OMT for pregnancy-related complaints

Women's Health, Pediatrics, and the Lifecycle flashcards for Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA)

22 of 51 cards from the Women's Health, Pediatrics, and the Lifecycle deck — real questions with worked answers.

1. What is the recommended schedule for routine prenatal visits in an uncomplicated pregnancy?

   Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks, then weekly from 36 weeks until delivery.

2. Which prenatal labs/screens are standard at the first prenatal visit?

   CBC, blood type and Rh with antibody screen, rubella immunity, hepatitis B surface antigen, HIV, syphilis (RPR/VDRL), urinalysis/culture, and a Pap if due; plus dating ultrasound.

3. How much folic acid is recommended before and during early pregnancy, and why?

   0.4 mg/day for average-risk women (4 mg/day if prior neural tube defect), started ideally 1 month before conception, to prevent neural tube defects.

4. When is the glucose challenge test for gestational diabetes performed and what is the screening protocol?

   At 24-28 weeks; a 50 g 1-hour glucose challenge, and if abnormal (>=130-140 mg/dL), confirm with a 3-hour 100 g oral glucose tolerance test.

5. By definition, what blood pressure and proteinuria thresholds establish preeclampsia after 20 weeks?

   BP >=140/90 on two occasions plus proteinuria (>=300 mg/24h or protein/creatinine >=0.3); or new hypertension with severe features even without proteinuria.

6. What medication is given to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, and what is its antidote?

   IV magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis/treatment; calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity.

7. Differentiate placenta previa from placental abruption by their classic bleeding presentation.

   Placenta previa = painless vaginal bleeding (placenta over the cervical os); abruption = painful bleeding with a tender, rigid uterus (premature separation of placenta).

8. What is the definition of gestational hypertension versus chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

   Gestational hypertension = new BP >=140/90 after 20 weeks without proteinuria; chronic hypertension = hypertension predating pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks.

9. What dose of Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to Rh-negative mothers and when?

   300 mcg IM at ~28 weeks and again within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive infant (also after any sensitizing event like bleeding or trauma).

10. What are the three stages of labor?

    Stage 1: onset of labor to full cervical dilation (10 cm); Stage 2: full dilation to delivery of the infant; Stage 3: delivery of the infant to delivery of the placenta.

11. List the cardinal movements of labor in order.

    Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation (restitution), and expulsion.

12. What are the components of the Bishop score and what does it predict?

    Cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and fetal station; it predicts likelihood of successful labor induction (higher score = more favorable cervix).

13. What defines postpartum hemorrhage and what is its most common cause?

    Blood loss >=1000 mL (or >500 mL vaginal historically) with signs of hypovolemia; the most common cause is uterine atony.

14. What is the first-line uterotonic for postpartum hemorrhage due to atony, and which is contraindicated in hypertension?

    Oxytocin is first-line; methylergonovine is contraindicated in hypertension; carboprost (15-methyl PGF2alpha) is contraindicated in asthma.

15. Differentiate postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis by timing/severity.

    Blues: mild, self-limited, peaks days 3-5 and resolves within 2 weeks; depression: persists >2 weeks with functional impairment; psychosis: delusions/hallucinations, often within 2 weeks, a psychiatric emergency.

16. What is the normal duration of lochia and the sequence of its color changes postpartum?

    Lasts up to ~4-6 weeks: lochia rubra (red, days 1-3), lochia serosa (pinkish-brown, days 4-10), then lochia alba (white/yellow).

17. Define primary amenorrhea.

    No menses by age 15 with normal secondary sexual characteristics, or no menses by age 13 with absent secondary sexual characteristics.

18. What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a reproductive-age woman?

    Pregnancy (always rule out first with a beta-hCG).

19. What is the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

    At least 2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (after excluding other causes).

20. Define primary dysmenorrhea and its underlying mechanism.

    Painful menses without pelvic pathology, caused by prostaglandin-mediated uterine contractions; treated with NSAIDs and/or combined hormonal contraceptives.

21. What is the most effective reversible form of contraception, and how do hormonal vs copper IUDs differ in duration?

    LARC (IUDs and implants) are most effective; levonorgestrel IUDs last 3-8 years depending on type, and the copper IUD lasts up to 10 years and is non-hormonal.

22. What are the absolute contraindications to combined estrogen-containing oral contraceptives?

    History of VTE/clotting disorder, smoker >=35 years old (>=15 cigarettes/day), migraine with aura, uncontrolled hypertension, active breast cancer, and history of stroke or CAD.

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