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BDS General Surgery Syllabus

The General Surgery syllabus for BDS in full: 9 chapters, 32 topics and 98 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 General Surgery flashcards with answers.

9Chapters
32Topics
98Sub-topics
52Flashcards

General Surgery syllabus: all 9 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. General Surgery

    4 topics
    • Preoperative Care
      • Patient Assessment
      • Risk Stratification
      • Preoperative Investigations
      • Informed Consent
    • Postoperative Care
      • Monitoring and Support
      • Pain Management
      • Wound Care
      • Complications and Management
    • Surgical Infections
      • Types of Infections
      • Antibiotic Prophylaxis
      • Management of Surgical Site Infections
    • Surgical Techniques
      • Aseptic Techniques
      • Suturing and Knot Tying
      • Hemostasis
  2. Trauma Surgery

    5 topics
    • Initial Assessment and Management
      • Primary Survey (ABCDE)
      • Secondary Survey
      • Trauma Resuscitation
    • Head and Neck Trauma
      • Scalp Lacerations
      • Facial Fractures
      • Neck Injuries
    • Thoracic Trauma
      • Chest Wall Injuries
      • Pulmonary Contusion
      • Cardiac Injuries
    • Abdominal Trauma
      • Solid Organ Injuries
      • Hollow Viscus Injuries
      • Retroperitoneal Hematoma
    • Orthopedic Trauma
      • Fracture Management
      • Dislocations
      • Compartment Syndrome
  3. Gastrointestinal Surgery

    5 topics
    • Esophageal Surgery
      • Achalasia
      • Esophageal Cancer
      • Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
    • Gastric Surgery
      • Peptic Ulcer Disease
      • Gastric Cancer
      • Bariatric Surgery
    • Hepatobiliary Surgery
      • Liver Cirrhosis
      • Hepatocellular Carcinoma
      • Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis
    • Pancreatic Surgery
      • Pancreatitis
      • Pancreatic Cancer
      • Cystic Neoplasms
    • Colorectal Surgery
      • Colorectal Cancer
      • Inflammatory Bowel Disease
      • Diverticular Disease
  4. Cardiothoracic Surgery

    3 topics
    • Cardiac Surgery
      • Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)
      • Valve Replacement Surgery
      • Congenital Heart Defects
    • Thoracic Surgery
      • Lung Cancer Surgery
      • Thoracoscopic Surgery
      • Pleural Diseases
    • Vascular Surgery
      • Aortic Aneurysm
      • Peripheral Arterial Disease
      • Carotid Endarterectomy
  5. Neurosurgery

    3 topics
    • Cranial Surgery
      • Brain Tumors
      • Traumatic Brain Injury
      • Hydrocephalus
    • Spinal Surgery
      • Spinal Cord Injury
      • Degenerative Spine Disease
      • Spinal Tumors
    • Peripheral Nerve Surgery
      • Nerve Repair
      • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
      • Peripheral Nerve Tumors
  6. Pediatric Surgery

    3 topics
    • Neonatal Surgery
      • Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
      • Esophageal Atresia
      • Imperforate Anus
    • Pediatric Oncology
      • Wilms' Tumor
      • Neuroblastoma
      • Rhabdomyosarcoma
    • Pediatric Trauma
      • Pediatric Fractures
      • Abdominal Trauma
      • Head Injuries
  7. Plastic Surgery

    3 topics
    • Reconstructive Surgery
      • Burn Management
      • Cleft Lip and Palate
      • Breast Reconstruction
    • Cosmetic Surgery
      • Rhinoplasty
      • Liposuction
      • Facelift
    • Hand Surgery
      • Carpal Tunnel Release
      • Dupuytren's Contracture
      • Tendon Repair
  8. Urology

    3 topics
    • Renal Surgery
      • Kidney Stones
      • Renal Cell Carcinoma
      • Nephrectomy
    • Bladder Surgery
      • Bladder Cancer
      • Cystectomy
      • Urinary Diversion
    • Prostate Surgery
      • Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
      • Prostate Cancer
      • Prostatectomy
  9. Orthopedic Surgery

    3 topics
    • Joint Replacement
      • Hip Replacement
      • Knee Replacement
      • Shoulder Replacement
    • Spine Surgery
      • Spinal Fusion
      • Disc Herniation
      • Scoliosis Surgery
    • Sports Injuries
      • ACL Reconstruction
      • Meniscal Repair
      • Rotator Cuff Repair

BDS General Surgery flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. What are the three overlapping phases of normal wound healing, in order?

    1) Inflammatory (hemostasis + inflammation, days 0-3), 2) Proliferative (fibroplasia, granulation, epithelialization, angiogenesis; days 3-21), 3) Remodeling/maturation (collagen type III replaced by type I; up to 1 year).

  2. Preoperative care: what does an ASA Physical Status Classification of ASA III versus ASA IV indicate?

    ASA III = patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating; ASA IV = severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

  3. How long should patients fast preoperatively for clear liquids versus solids per standard ASA guidelines?

    Clear liquids: $2$ hours; breast milk: $4$ hours; light meal/non-human milk: $6$ hours; fried/fatty food or full meal: $8$ hours.

  4. Preoperative care: within what time window before incision should prophylactic antibiotics ideally be given?

    Within $60$ minutes before skin incision ($120$ minutes for vancomycin or fluoroquinolones due to longer infusion time).

  5. Postoperative care: define the classic '5 Ws' causes of postoperative fever by typical postop day.

    Wind (atelectasis/pneumonia, days 1-2), Water (UTI, days 3-5), Wound (infection, days 5-7), Walking (DVT/PE, days 5+), Wonder drugs (drug fever/abscess, day 7+).

  6. What is the most common cause of fever in the first 48 hours after surgery?

    Atelectasis (though modern evidence questions the strength of this link; early inflammatory response from surgery itself is also common).

  7. Postoperative care: what is the recommended mechanical and pharmacologic VTE prophylaxis for a moderate-to-high risk surgical patient?

    Mechanical: intermittent pneumatic compression / graduated compression stockings; Pharmacologic: low-molecular-weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin) or unfractionated heparin, plus early ambulation.

  8. Surgical infections: define the four surgical wound classifications.

    Class I Clean; Class II Clean-contaminated (controlled entry of a hollow viscus); Class III Contaminated (open fresh wound, gross spillage, or major break in sterile technique); Class IV Dirty-infected (existing infection or perforated viscus).

  9. What organism is the most common cause of surgical site infections overall?

    Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA).

  10. Surgical infections: what is the classic triad/clinical clue that should raise suspicion for necrotizing fasciitis?

    Pain out of proportion to exam, rapidly spreading erythema/edema with skin necrosis or bullae, systemic toxicity, and crepitus/gas; treatment is urgent surgical debridement plus broad-spectrum antibiotics.

  11. What is the definition of sepsis under the Sepsis-3 criteria?

    Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, defined as an acute increase of $\geq 2$ points in the SOFA score due to infection.

  12. Surgical techniques: differentiate primary, secondary, and tertiary (delayed primary) wound closure.

    Primary: wound edges approximated immediately. Secondary: wound left open to heal by granulation/contraction. Tertiary/delayed primary: wound left open initially then closed after several days once infection risk falls.

  13. Surgical techniques: what suture material property is described by absorbable vs non-absorbable, and give one example of each.

    Absorbable = degraded by the body over time (e.g., Vicryl/polyglactin, Monocryl); Non-absorbable = retains strength indefinitely (e.g., Nylon, Prolene/polypropylene, silk).

  14. Initial trauma assessment: list the ABCDE primary survey sequence.

    A: Airway with cervical-spine protection; B: Breathing/ventilation; C: Circulation with hemorrhage control; D: Disability (neurologic/GCS); E: Exposure/Environment (undress, prevent hypothermia).

  15. What are the components and score range of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

    Eye opening ($1$-$4$), Verbal response ($1$-$5$), Motor response ($1$-$6$); total range $3$ to $15$.

  16. Trauma: define the four classes of hemorrhagic shock by approximate blood loss.

    Class I: $<15\%$ (up to $\sim750$ mL); Class II: $15$-$30\%$; Class III: $30$-$40\%$; Class IV: $>40\%$ (in a $70$ kg adult, blood volume $\approx 5$ L).

  17. Trauma initial management: what is the recommended initial crystalloid bolus and the modern approach to persistent hypotension from hemorrhage?

    Initial warmed crystalloid bolus $\approx 1$ L (pediatrics $20$ mL/kg); if ongoing hemorrhagic shock, move early to balanced blood product transfusion (packed RBC:FFP:platelets $\approx 1{:}1{:}1$) rather than large crystalloid volumes.

  18. Head and neck trauma: what is the Cushing reflex/triad indicating raised intracranial pressure?

    Hypertension (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular/depressed respirations.

  19. Head trauma: what is the formula for cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?

    $$CPP = MAP - ICP$$ where MAP is mean arterial pressure and ICP is intracranial pressure; target CPP is typically $60$-$70$ mmHg.

  20. Head trauma: contrast the CT appearance of epidural versus subdural hematoma.

    Epidural: biconvex/lens-shaped, does not cross suture lines, often arterial (middle meningeal artery), classic lucid interval. Subdural: crescent-shaped, crosses suture lines, venous (bridging veins), common in elderly/alcoholics.

Show the other 32 General Surgery flashcards
  1. Thoracic trauma: name the immediately life-threatening injuries identified in the primary survey (the 'lethal six' are secondary).

    Airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, flail chest with pulmonary contusion, and cardiac tamponade.

  2. Thoracic trauma: describe the clinical signs and immediate treatment of tension pneumothorax.

    Signs: respiratory distress, absent breath sounds and hyperresonance on the affected side, tracheal deviation away, distended neck veins, hypotension. Treatment: immediate needle decompression (2nd intercostal space midclavicular line or 4th-5th ICS anterior axillary line) followed by chest tube.

  3. Thoracic trauma: what defines a massive hemothorax requiring operative intervention?

    Initial chest tube drainage of $>1500$ mL of blood, or ongoing loss of $>200$ mL/hr for $2$-$4$ hours.

  4. Thoracic trauma: what is Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade?

    Hypotension, muffled/distant heart sounds, and distended jugular veins (elevated JVP).

  5. Abdominal trauma: what is the FAST exam and its four standard windows?

    Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma; detects free fluid at: right upper quadrant (hepatorenal/Morison's pouch), left upper quadrant (splenorenal), pelvis (pouch of Douglas/rectovesical), and pericardium (subxiphoid).

  6. Abdominal trauma: which solid organ is most commonly injured in blunt trauma, and what finding suggests it?

    The spleen; suggested by left upper quadrant tenderness, left lower rib fractures, and referred left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign).

  7. Abdominal trauma: what are indications for immediate laparotomy after blunt abdominal trauma?

    Hemodynamic instability with positive FAST/peritoneal signs, evisceration, peritonitis, free air on imaging, or diaphragmatic rupture.

  8. Orthopedic trauma: name the components of a complete open (compound) fracture management and the classification used.

    Gustilo-Anderson classification (Types I-III); management: IV antibiotics early, tetanus prophylaxis, irrigation and debridement, fracture stabilization, and soft-tissue coverage.

  9. Orthopedic trauma: what are the '5 Ps' (and 6th) of acute compartment syndrome?

    Pain (out of proportion, worse on passive stretch), Paresthesia, Pallor, Pulselessness (late), Paralysis, and Poikilothermia; the earliest and most reliable sign is pain on passive stretch. Diagnosis confirmed by compartment pressure; treatment is emergent fasciotomy.

  10. Orthopedic trauma: at what compartment pressure or delta pressure is fasciotomy generally indicated?

    Absolute compartment pressure $>30$ mmHg, or a delta pressure ($\Delta P = $ diastolic BP $-$ compartment pressure) $<30$ mmHg.

  11. Esophageal surgery: what is Boerhaave syndrome and its classic presentation?

    Spontaneous transmural rupture of the esophagus (usually left posterolateral distal esophagus) from forceful vomiting; classic Mackler triad = vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema.

  12. Esophageal surgery: what is the surgical treatment of achalasia and the underlying pathology?

    Pathology: loss of inhibitory myenteric (Auerbach) plexus neurons causing failure of LES relaxation. Surgical treatment: laparoscopic Heller myotomy (often with partial fundoplication) or per-oral endoscopic myotomy (POEM).

  13. Gastric surgery: what are the two main types of gastric cancer histology and the associated diffuse-type appearance?

    Intestinal type (glandular, associated with H. pylori, better differentiated) and diffuse type (signet-ring cells, poorly cohesive; linitis plastica = diffuse infiltration causing a rigid 'leather bottle' stomach).

  14. Gastric surgery: what is dumping syndrome and how do early and late forms differ?

    A complication of gastric surgery from rapid gastric emptying. Early (15-30 min): osmotic fluid shift causing crampy pain, diarrhea, tachycardia. Late (1-3 hr): reactive hypoglycemia from an insulin surge after rapid glucose absorption.

  15. Hepatobiliary surgery: what is Charcot's triad and Reynolds' pentad for cholangitis?

    Charcot's triad: fever, right upper quadrant pain, jaundice. Reynolds' pentad adds hypotension (shock) and altered mental status, indicating suppurative cholangitis.

  16. Hepatobiliary surgery: what is the critical view of safety in laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

    A dissection technique to prevent bile duct injury: clearing the hepatocystic triangle of fat/fibrous tissue, exposing the lower third of the gallbladder off the liver bed, so that only two structures (cystic duct and cystic artery) are seen entering the gallbladder before clipping.

  17. Hepatobiliary surgery: what are the boundaries of the hepatocystic (Calot's) triangle?

    The cystic duct (inferiorly), the common hepatic duct (medially), and the inferior edge of the liver (superiorly); the cystic artery runs within it.

  18. Pancreatic surgery: what operation is a Whipple procedure and what is resected?

    Pancreaticoduodenectomy for tumors of the pancreatic head/periampullary region; resects the pancreatic head, duodenum, gallbladder, common bile duct, and often the gastric antrum, with reconstruction (pancreaticojejunostomy, hepaticojejunostomy, gastrojejunostomy).

  19. Pancreatic surgery: which scoring systems assess severity of acute pancreatitis?

    Ranson's criteria (assessed at admission and $48$ hours), APACHE II score, BISAP score, and the modified Glasgow (Imrie) criteria; contrast-enhanced CT (Balthazar/CT severity index) assesses necrosis.

  20. Colorectal surgery: contrast the Hartmann's procedure with a low anterior resection.

    Hartmann's: resection of the rectosigmoid with an end colostomy and closure of the rectal stump (no immediate anastomosis, used in emergencies/perforation). Low anterior resection: resection of rectal cancer with primary colorectal anastomosis preserving the anal sphincter.

  21. Colorectal surgery: what is the difference between an ileostomy and a colostomy in output and location?

    Ileostomy: usually right lower quadrant, spouted, produces liquid/high-volume effluent rich in enzymes (skin-corrosive). Colostomy: usually left lower quadrant, flush to skin, produces more formed/solid stool.

  22. Colorectal surgery: what is the difference between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis relevant to surgery?

    Crohn's: transmural, skip lesions anywhere mouth-to-anus, fistulae/strictures; surgery is not curative. Ulcerative colitis: mucosal, continuous, rectum-to-proximal colon; total proctocolectomy is curative and also removes cancer risk.

  23. Cardiac surgery: describe the principle of cardiopulmonary bypass and the role of cardioplegia.

    Cardiopulmonary bypass diverts blood from the heart/lungs to a machine that oxygenates and pumps it, allowing a bloodless, still operative field. Cardioplegia (typically high-potassium solution) arrests the heart in diastole and protects the myocardium during the procedure.

  24. Cardiac surgery: what conduits are commonly used for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) and which has the best long-term patency?

    Left internal mammary (thoracic) artery — best patency (>90% at 10 years, usually grafted to the LAD); also great saphenous vein grafts and radial artery grafts.

  25. Cardiac surgery: contrast a mechanical versus a bioprosthetic heart valve.

    Mechanical: durable (lifelong), but requires lifelong anticoagulation (warfarin) — preferred in younger patients. Bioprosthetic (tissue): no long-term anticoagulation needed but limited durability (~10-15 yr) — preferred in older patients or when anticoagulation is contraindicated.

  26. Thoracic surgery: what are the standard anatomical lung resections for lung cancer?

    Lobectomy (removal of a lobe — standard for early NSCLC), pneumonectomy (whole lung), segmentectomy and wedge resection (sublobar, for limited reserve or small peripheral tumors).

  27. Thoracic surgery: what preoperative pulmonary function value generally predicts acceptable risk for lobectomy/pneumonectomy?

    A predicted postoperative $FEV_{1}$ and $DLCO$ each $>40\%$ predicted (or preoperative $FEV_{1} > 2$ L for pneumonectomy, $>1.5$ L for lobectomy) generally indicates adequate reserve.

  28. Vascular surgery: at what diameter is elective repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) generally indicated?

    Diameter $\geq 5.5$ cm (in men), rapid expansion $>0.5$ cm in $6$ months, or symptomatic/tender aneurysm; women are often repaired at $\geq 5.0$ cm.

  29. Vascular surgery: what are the '6 Ps' of acute limb ischemia?

    Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia (Perishing cold); it is a surgical emergency requiring revascularization within ~6 hours to preserve limb viability.

  30. Vascular surgery: how does claudication differ from critical limb ischemia (Fontaine/Rutherford)?

    Claudication = reproducible muscle pain on exertion relieved by rest (Fontaine II). Critical limb ischemia = rest pain (Fontaine III) or tissue loss/ulceration/gangrene (Fontaine IV), typically with ankle-brachial index (ABI) $<0.4$.

  31. Vascular surgery: what ABI (ankle-brachial index) values indicate normal, claudication, and critical ischemia?

    Normal ABI $= 0.9$-$1.3$; peripheral arterial disease/claudication $= 0.4$-$0.9$; critical limb ischemia $< 0.4$; values $>1.3$ suggest non-compressible, calcified vessels (e.g., diabetes).

  32. Cranial surgery: what is the Monro-Kellie doctrine?

    The cranial vault is a fixed volume containing brain, blood, and CSF; an increase in one component (or a mass) must be compensated by a decrease in another, or intracranial pressure rises. It explains the limited compensatory reserve before ICP escalates.

Same General Surgery syllabus in other exams

The General Surgery outline above is identical in these 2 exams:

BDS General Surgery FAQ

What is in the BDS General Surgery syllabus?

BDS General Surgery is split into 9 chapters: General Surgery, Trauma Surgery, Gastrointestinal Surgery, Cardiothoracic Surgery, Neurosurgery, Pediatric Surgery, Plastic Surgery, Urology and Orthopedic Surgery. Together they contain 32 topics and 98 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in BDS General Surgery?

9 chapters, containing 32 topics and 98 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma Surgery, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for BDS General Surgery?

Yes — a 52-card General Surgery deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.