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BDS Dental Pharmacology Syllabus

The Dental Pharmacology syllabus for BDS in full: 7 chapters, 23 topics and 62 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Dental Pharmacology flashcards with answers.

7Chapters
23Topics
62Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Dental Pharmacology syllabus: all 7 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. General Principles of Pharmacology

    4 topics
    • Pharmacokinetics
      • Absorption
      • Distribution
      • Metabolism
      • Excretion
    • Pharmacodynamics
      • Drug-Receptor Interactions
      • Dose-Response Relationship
      • Therapeutic Index
    • Drug Interactions
      • Synergism and Antagonism
      • Pharmacokinetic Interactions
      • Pharmacodynamic Interactions
    • Adverse Drug Reactions
      • Types of Adverse Reactions
      • Management of Adverse Reactions
  2. Local Anesthetics

    3 topics
    • Types of Local Anesthetics
      • Ester Local Anesthetics
      • Amide Local Anesthetics
    • Mechanism of Action
      • Nerve Membrane Stabilization
      • Sodium Channel Blockade
    • Clinical Use
      • Indications
      • Techniques of Administration
      • Complications and Management
  3. Analgesics

    4 topics
    • Non-Opioid Analgesics
      • NSAIDs
      • Acetaminophen
    • Opioid Analgesics
      • Morphine
      • Codeine
      • Synthetic Opioids
    • Adjuvant Analgesics
      • Antidepressants
      • Anticonvulsants
    • Pain Management in Dentistry
      • Acute Pain Management
      • Chronic Pain Management
  4. Antibiotics in Dentistry

    3 topics
    • Classification of Antibiotics
      • Beta-Lactams
      • Macrolides
      • Tetracyclines
      • Aminoglycosides
      • Quinolones
    • Mechanism of Action
      • Inhibition of Cell Wall Synthesis
      • Protein Synthesis Inhibition
      • Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibition
    • Clinical Use in Dentistry
      • Prophylactic Use
      • Therapeutic Use
      • Resistance and Stewardship
  5. Antifungal and Antiviral Agents

    3 topics
    • Antifungal Agents
      • Azoles
      • Polyenes
      • Echinocandins
    • Antiviral Agents
      • Nucleoside Analogues
      • Protease Inhibitors
    • Clinical Use in Dentistry
      • Oral Candidiasis
      • Herpetic Infections
  6. Sedatives and Hypnotics

    3 topics
    • Benzodiazepines
      • Mechanism of Action
      • Clinical Use
      • Side Effects
    • Non-Benzodiazepine Sedatives
      • Barbiturates
      • Z-Drugs
    • Sedation in Dentistry
      • Conscious Sedation
      • Deep Sedation
      • General Anesthesia
  7. Emergency Drugs in Dental Practice

    3 topics
    • Cardiovascular Emergencies
      • Nitroglycerin
      • Aspirin
      • Epinephrine
    • Allergic Reactions
      • Antihistamines
      • Corticosteroids
      • Epinephrine
    • Respiratory Emergencies
      • Bronchodilators
      • Oxygen

BDS Dental Pharmacology flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. Define pharmacokinetics and name its four main processes (the ADME scheme).

    Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to a drug over time. Its four processes are Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion (ADME).

  2. What is bioavailability (F), and what is its value for an intravenous drug?

    Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged. For an IV drug $F = 1$ (100%), because it bypasses absorption and first-pass metabolism.

  3. Write the equation relating volume of distribution to dose and plasma concentration.

    $$V_d = \frac{\text{Amount of drug in body}}{C_p}$$ where $C_p$ is the plasma drug concentration. A large $V_d$ implies extensive tissue distribution.

  4. Define drug clearance (CL) and give its formula in terms of elimination rate.

    Clearance is the volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time: $$CL = \frac{\text{Rate of elimination}}{C_p}$$ It can also be written $CL = k_e \cdot V_d$.

  5. State the formula for elimination half-life in terms of $V_d$ and clearance.

    $$t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693 \cdot V_d}{CL}$$ where $0.693 = \ln 2$. Half-life is the time for plasma concentration to fall by 50%.

  6. After how many half-lives is a drug considered effectively eliminated (or steady state reached)?

    About 4–5 half-lives. After 5 half-lives roughly 97% of the drug is eliminated, and steady state is reached during constant-rate dosing.

  7. Distinguish first-order from zero-order elimination kinetics.

    In first-order kinetics a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time (rate proportional to concentration). In zero-order kinetics a constant amount is eliminated per unit time (rate is constant, saturable), e.g., ethanol, phenytoin, aspirin at high doses.

  8. What is the first-pass effect and which routes avoid it?

    First-pass effect is metabolism of an orally absorbed drug in the gut wall and liver before reaching systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability. Sublingual, rectal (partially), IV, IM, and transdermal routes largely bypass it.

  9. Contrast Phase I and Phase II biotransformation reactions.

    Phase I reactions (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis; often via cytochrome P450) introduce or expose a functional group. Phase II reactions are conjugations (glucuronidation, sulfation, acetylation) that add an endogenous molecule to increase water solubility for excretion.

  10. Define pharmacodynamics.

    Pharmacodynamics is the study of what the drug does to the body — the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action, including receptor binding and dose–response relationships.

  11. Differentiate an agonist, a competitive antagonist, and an inverse agonist.

    An agonist binds a receptor and produces the maximal response (full efficacy). A competitive antagonist binds reversibly with no intrinsic activity, blocking the agonist (surmountable). An inverse agonist binds and produces the opposite effect to the agonist, reducing constitutive activity.

  12. Define potency and efficacy, and state which is described by $EC_{50}$.

    Potency is the amount of drug needed to produce a given effect; efficacy is the maximal effect a drug can produce. $EC_{50}$ (the concentration giving 50% of maximal effect) describes potency — a lower $EC_{50}$ means higher potency.

  13. What is the therapeutic index (TI) and how is it calculated?

    The therapeutic index is a measure of drug safety: $$TI = \frac{TD_{50}}{ED_{50}}$$ (or $LD_{50}/ED_{50}$ in animals). A larger TI indicates a wider safety margin.

  14. Define partial agonist and explain its dual behaviour.

    A partial agonist binds a receptor but produces a submaximal response even at full occupancy (lower efficacy than a full agonist). In the presence of a full agonist it can act as an antagonist by competing for the receptor.

  15. Classify the four main types of drug interaction by mechanism.

    Pharmaceutical (physicochemical incompatibility before administration), pharmacokinetic (altered absorption, distribution, metabolism, or excretion), and pharmacodynamic (additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effects at the site of action).

  16. How does enzyme induction versus inhibition affect a co-administered drug's plasma level?

    Enzyme inducers (e.g., rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin) increase metabolism and lower plasma levels of affected drugs. Enzyme inhibitors (e.g., erythromycin, ketoconazole, cimetidine) decrease metabolism and raise plasma levels, risking toxicity.

  17. Why should adrenaline-containing local anesthetics be used cautiously with non-selective beta-blockers or tricyclic antidepressants?

    Non-selective beta-blockers can cause unopposed alpha stimulation leading to hypertension and reflex bradycardia; tricyclic antidepressants potentiate adrenaline's pressor effect by blocking noradrenaline reuptake — both can produce a hypertensive response.

  18. Define an adverse drug reaction (ADR) and distinguish Type A from Type B reactions.

    An ADR is any noxious, unintended response to a drug at normal therapeutic doses. Type A (Augmented) reactions are dose-dependent, predictable extensions of pharmacology (e.g., bleeding with warfarin). Type B (Bizarre) reactions are dose-independent, unpredictable, often immunological (e.g., penicillin anaphylaxis).

  19. Name the four Gell and Coombs hypersensitivity types with a drug example each.

    Type I: immediate/IgE-mediated (penicillin anaphylaxis). Type II: cytotoxic/antibody-mediated (drug-induced hemolytic anemia). Type III: immune complex (serum sickness). Type IV: delayed cell-mediated (contact dermatitis to topical agents).

  20. What oral adverse effect is characteristic of long-term phenytoin, and of chronic tetracycline use in children?

    Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth). Tetracyclines taken during tooth development cause intrinsic tooth discoloration and enamel hypoplasia, so they are avoided in children under 8 and in pregnancy.

Show the other 31 Dental Pharmacology flashcards
  1. Chemically, into what two classes are local anesthetics divided, and how are they metabolized?

    Esters (e.g., procaine, benzocaine, tetracaine) — metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase. Amides (e.g., lidocaine, articaine, bupivacaine, mepivacaine, prilocaine) — metabolized mainly in the liver. Amides have 'i' in their name before '-caine'.

  2. Why are ester local anesthetics more likely to cause allergic reactions than amides?

    Esters are metabolized to para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA), a known allergen. True allergy to amide local anesthetics is rare, so amides are preferred in patients with LA allergy history.

  3. What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics at the molecular level?

    Local anesthetics reversibly block voltage-gated sodium ($\ce{Na+}$) channels on the internal side of the neuronal membrane, preventing $\ce{Na+}$ influx and thereby blocking depolarization and propagation of the action potential.

  4. Which form of a local anesthetic crosses the nerve membrane, and which form blocks the sodium channel?

    The uncharged, lipophilic (non-ionized) base form penetrates the nerve membrane; once inside, the charged (ionized, protonated) cationic form binds and blocks the sodium channel from the intracellular side.

  5. Why do local anesthetics work poorly in inflamed or infected (abscessed) tissue?

    Inflamed tissue is acidic (low pH), which shifts the equilibrium toward the charged ionized form. Less non-ionized base is available to cross the nerve membrane, so anesthetic penetration and efficacy are reduced.

  6. Why is a vasoconstrictor (e.g., adrenaline) added to local anesthetic solutions? Give three benefits.

    Adrenaline causes local vasoconstriction, which (1) prolongs the duration of anesthesia, (2) reduces systemic absorption and toxicity, and (3) decreases bleeding at the surgical site by reducing local blood flow.

  7. State the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine with adrenaline in mg/kg.

    Lidocaine with adrenaline: up to $7\ \text{mg/kg}$ (max ~500 mg). Plain lidocaine without adrenaline: up to $4.4\text{–}5\ \text{mg/kg}$ (max ~300 mg).

  8. List the clinical uses of local anesthesia relevant to dentistry.

    Pain control for restorative procedures, extractions, endodontics, periodontal surgery, and minor oral surgery. Techniques include topical, infiltration, nerve block (e.g., inferior alveolar nerve block), and intraligamentary/intraosseous injection.

  9. What is the mechanism of action of non-opioid analgesics (NSAIDs)?

    NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes, reducing conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, thereby producing analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects.

  10. How does paracetamol (acetaminophen) differ from classic NSAIDs in action and effect?

    Paracetamol has analgesic and antipyretic effects but little peripheral anti-inflammatory action. It acts mainly centrally (thought to inhibit COX in the CNS/COX-3) and does not cause gastric ulceration or platelet inhibition, but is hepatotoxic in overdose.

  11. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose and why does it work?

    N-acetylcysteine (NAC). It replenishes hepatic glutathione, allowing detoxification of the toxic reactive metabolite NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine) that causes hepatocellular necrosis.

  12. Which NSAID irreversibly inhibits COX, and what is the clinical consequence?

    Aspirin irreversibly acetylates COX. Because platelets cannot synthesize new COX, its antiplatelet effect lasts the ~7–10 day lifespan of the platelet, unlike reversible NSAIDs.

  13. Why is aspirin contraindicated in children and after dental surgery in bleeding-risk patients?

    In children with viral infections aspirin is linked to Reye's syndrome (encephalopathy and liver failure). Its irreversible antiplatelet effect increases post-operative bleeding risk.

  14. Name the principal adverse effects of chronic NSAID use.

    Gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding (COX-1 inhibition reduces protective gastric prostaglandins), renal impairment, increased cardiovascular risk (especially selective COX-2 inhibitors), and hypersensitivity/bronchospasm.

  15. What is the mechanism of action of opioid analgesics?

    Opioids act as agonists at opioid receptors — mainly mu ($\mu$), also kappa ($\kappa$) and delta ($\delta$) — which are G-protein coupled. They inhibit adenylyl cyclase, open $\ce{K+}$ channels (hyperpolarization), and close voltage-gated $\ce{Ca^2+}$ channels, reducing neurotransmitter release and pain transmission.

  16. List the classic adverse effects (triad and others) of opioid analgesics.

    Respiratory depression, sedation/CNS depression, and miosis (pinpoint pupils), plus constipation, nausea/vomiting, euphoria, physical dependence and tolerance, and pruritus.

  17. What drug reverses opioid overdose and by what mechanism?

    Naloxone, a competitive antagonist at $\mu$ (and other) opioid receptors. Given IV/IM it rapidly reverses respiratory depression; its short half-life may require repeat dosing.

  18. Compare codeine and tramadol as mild opioids used in dental pain.

    Codeine is a prodrug converted by CYP2D6 to morphine for analgesia (variable due to genetic polymorphism). Tramadol is a weak $\mu$ agonist that also inhibits serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake; it carries seizure and serotonin-syndrome risk.

  19. Define adjuvant analgesics and give two examples used for neuropathic dental/orofacial pain.

    Adjuvant analgesics are drugs whose primary indication is not pain but which relieve pain in certain conditions. Examples: anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine and gabapentin/pregabalin, and tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline.

  20. Which drug is first-line for trigeminal neuralgia and what is its mechanism?

    Carbamazepine is first-line for trigeminal neuralgia. It blocks voltage-gated sodium channels, stabilizing hyperexcitable neuronal membranes and reducing paroxysmal pain discharges.

  21. Describe the WHO analgesic ladder as applied to dental pain management.

    Step 1: non-opioid (paracetamol/NSAID) $\pm$ adjuvant for mild pain. Step 2: add a weak opioid (codeine/tramadol) for moderate pain. Step 3: strong opioid (morphine) for severe pain. Adjuvants may be added at any step.

  22. What is the rationale for combining paracetamol with an NSAID (e.g., ibuprofen) for acute dental pain?

    They have different, complementary mechanisms (central vs peripheral COX-related action), giving additive/synergistic analgesia superior to either alone, while allowing lower doses and reducing opioid need — a common regimen for post-extraction pain.

  23. Classify antibiotics by their mechanism of action into the major groups.

    1) Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis (penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin). 2) Inhibitors of protein synthesis (tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides, clindamycin). 3) Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis (fluoroquinolones, rifampicin). 4) Inhibitors of folate synthesis (sulfonamides, trimethoprim). 5) Cell membrane disruptors (polymyxins).

  24. Distinguish bactericidal from bacteriostatic antibiotics with examples.

    Bactericidal agents kill bacteria (penicillins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, metronidazole, fluoroquinolones). Bacteriostatic agents inhibit growth, relying on host defenses (tetracyclines, macrolides, sulfonamides, clindamycin at usual doses).

  25. What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins/cephalosporins)?

    Beta-lactams bind penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases) and inhibit cross-linking of peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall, leading to a weakened wall, osmotic lysis, and cell death. They are most effective against actively dividing bacteria.

  26. Why is amoxicillin the first-line antibiotic for most acute dental (odontogenic) infections?

    Odontogenic infections are usually caused by mixed oral flora dominated by susceptible Gram-positive and anaerobic organisms. Amoxicillin has a suitable spectrum, good oral absorption, and is generally well tolerated; metronidazole may be added for anaerobic cover.

  27. State the clinical role of metronidazole in dentistry and one critical patient counselling point.

    Metronidazole targets obligate anaerobes and is used for acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, pericoronitis, and severe periodontal infections (often with amoxicillin). Patients must avoid alcohol due to a disulfiram-like reaction (flushing, nausea, vomiting).

  28. Which antibiotic is used for penicillin-allergic patients in dentistry, and what is a notable adverse effect?

    Clindamycin (a lincosamide, inhibits the 50S ribosomal subunit) is used in penicillin-allergic patients for serious dental infections. It is associated with pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridioides difficile overgrowth.

  29. Name the mechanism and dental use of antifungal agents like nystatin and the azoles for oral candidiasis.

    Nystatin/amphotericin B (polyenes) bind ergosterol in the fungal membrane, forming pores. Azoles (fluconazole, miconazole) inhibit ergosterol synthesis via CYP450 14-alpha-demethylase. Both treat oral candidiasis (thrush); nystatin/miconazole are used topically, fluconazole systemically.

  30. What antiviral is used for herpetic oral lesions, and what is its mechanism and mode of action?

    Aciclovir treats herpes simplex (herpes labialis, primary herpetic gingivostomatitis). It is a guanosine analogue activated by viral thymidine kinase to a triphosphate that inhibits viral DNA polymerase and terminates the viral DNA chain, making it selective for infected cells.

  31. What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines and their main dental use?

    Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam, midazolam) bind an allosteric site on the $\ce{GABA_A}$ receptor, increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening in response to GABA, enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission. In dentistry they are used for conscious sedation and anxiolysis; midazolam is common for IV sedation. Flumazenil is the specific antagonist/reversal agent.

Same Dental Pharmacology syllabus in other exams

The Dental Pharmacology outline above is identical in this exam:

BDS Dental Pharmacology FAQ

What is in the BDS Dental Pharmacology syllabus?

BDS Dental Pharmacology is split into 7 chapters: General Principles of Pharmacology, Local Anesthetics, Analgesics, Antibiotics in Dentistry, Antifungal and Antiviral Agents, Sedatives and Hypnotics and Emergency Drugs in Dental Practice. Together they contain 23 topics and 62 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in BDS Dental Pharmacology?

7 chapters, containing 23 topics and 62 sub-topics. The largest chapter is General Principles of Pharmacology, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for BDS Dental Pharmacology?

Yes — a 51-card Dental Pharmacology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.