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BDS General Physiology Syllabus
The General Physiology syllabus for BDS in full: 10 chapters, 43 topics and 105 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 56 General Physiology flashcards with answers.
General Physiology syllabus: all 10 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Cell Physiology
3 topics- Cell Structure
- Cell Membrane
- Cytoplasm
- Nucleus
- Cell Functions
- Transport Mechanisms
- Cell Signaling
- Cell Division
- Membrane Potential
- Resting Membrane Potential
- Action Potential
- Cell Structure
-
Blood and Immune System
4 topics- Blood Composition
- Plasma
- Blood Cells
- Hemostasis
- Coagulation Cascade
- Platelet Function
- Immune Response
- Innate Immunity
- Adaptive Immunity
- Blood Groups
- ABO System
- Rh System
- Blood Composition
-
Cardiovascular System
4 topics- Heart Anatomy
- Chambers of the Heart
- Heart Valves
- Cardiac Cycle
- Phases of Cardiac Cycle
- Heart Sounds
- Electrophysiology
- Cardiac Action Potential
- Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- Hemodynamics
- Blood Pressure
- Blood Flow
- Heart Anatomy
-
Respiratory System
4 topics- Respiratory Anatomy
- Upper Respiratory Tract
- Lower Respiratory Tract
- Mechanics of Breathing
- Inspiration
- Expiration
- Gas Exchange
- Alveolar Gas Exchange
- Transport of Gases
- Regulation of Respiration
- Neural Regulation
- Chemical Regulation
- Respiratory Anatomy
-
Nervous System
5 topics- Neuroanatomy
- Central Nervous System
- Peripheral Nervous System
- Neurophysiology
- Synaptic Transmission
- Neurotransmitters
- Sensory Systems
- Somatosensory System
- Visual System
- Auditory System
- Olfactory System
- Gustatory System
- Motor Systems
- Motor Cortex
- Basal Ganglia
- Cerebellum
- Autonomic Nervous System
- Sympathetic Nervous System
- Parasympathetic Nervous System
- Neuroanatomy
-
Endocrine System
6 topics- Hormone Classification
- Peptide Hormones
- Steroid Hormones
- Amino Acid Derivatives
- Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
- Hypothalamic Hormones
- Pituitary Hormones
- Thyroid Gland
- Thyroid Hormones
- Regulation of Thyroid Function
- Adrenal Glands
- Adrenal Cortex
- Adrenal Medulla
- Pancreas
- Insulin
- Glucagon
- Reproductive Hormones
- Male Reproductive Hormones
- Female Reproductive Hormones
- Hormone Classification
-
Renal System
4 topics- Kidney Anatomy
- Nephron Structure
- Renal Blood Flow
- Urine Formation
- Glomerular Filtration
- Tubular Reabsorption
- Tubular Secretion
- Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
- Water Balance
- Electrolyte Balance
- Acid-Base Balance
- Buffer Systems
- Respiratory Regulation
- Renal Regulation
- Kidney Anatomy
-
Digestive System
4 topics- Gastrointestinal Tract Anatomy
- Mouth and Esophagus
- Stomach
- Small Intestine
- Large Intestine
- Digestive Processes
- Ingestion
- Propulsion
- Mechanical Digestion
- Chemical Digestion
- Absorption
- Defecation
- Accessory Digestive Organs
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder
- Regulation of Digestion
- Neural Regulation
- Hormonal Regulation
- Gastrointestinal Tract Anatomy
-
Musculoskeletal System
4 topics- Muscle Physiology
- Skeletal Muscle
- Cardiac Muscle
- Smooth Muscle
- Mechanics of Muscle Contraction
- Sliding Filament Theory
- Neuromuscular Junction
- Bone Physiology
- Bone Structure
- Bone Remodeling
- Joints and Movement
- Types of Joints
- Joint Movements
- Muscle Physiology
-
Special Senses
5 topics- Vision
- Anatomy of the Eye
- Phototransduction
- Visual Pathways
- Hearing
- Anatomy of the Ear
- Mechanics of Hearing
- Auditory Pathways
- Taste
- Taste Buds
- Taste Pathways
- Smell
- Olfactory Epithelium
- Olfactory Pathways
- Equilibrium
- Vestibular Apparatus
- Balance Pathways
- Vision
BDS General Physiology flashcards — 56 questions with answers
What are the three major structural components of a eukaryotic cell?
The plasma membrane, the cytoplasm (containing organelles and cytosol), and the nucleus.
What is the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane?
A model describing the membrane as a fluid phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins (integral and peripheral), cholesterol, and carbohydrates that can move laterally within the layer.
Which organelle is the site of aerobic ATP production, and by what process?
The mitochondrion, via oxidative phosphorylation (the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis) coupled to the citric acid cycle.
Distinguish the functions of rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Rough ER (studded with ribosomes) synthesizes and folds proteins; smooth ER synthesizes lipids/steroids, metabolizes carbohydrates, detoxifies drugs, and stores $\ce{Ca^{2+}}$.
State the Nernst equation for the equilibrium potential of an ion and give the value of the constant at body temperature.
$$E_{ion} = \frac{RT}{zF}\ln\frac{[\text{ion}]_{out}}{[\text{ion}]_{in}}$$ At $37^{\circ}C$ this reduces to $E_{ion} = \frac{61}{z}\log_{10}\frac{[\text{ion}]_{out}}{[\text{ion}]_{in}}$ mV.
What is the typical resting membrane potential of a neuron, and which ion's equilibrium potential does it lie closest to?
About $-70$ mV, lying closest to the $\ce{K+}$ equilibrium potential (approximately $-90$ mV) because the resting membrane is most permeable to $\ce{K+}$.
What role does the $\ce{Na+}/\ce{K+}$-ATPase play in the membrane potential?
It pumps 3 $\ce{Na+}$ out and 2 $\ce{K+}$ in per ATP, maintaining the concentration gradients and contributing a small electrogenic component (about $-4$ mV) to the resting potential.
List the sequential phases of a neuronal action potential.
Resting state, depolarization (rapid $\ce{Na+}$ influx after threshold), repolarization ($\ce{Na+}$ channels inactivate, $\ce{K+}$ efflux), hyperpolarization/undershoot, and return to rest.
What is the approximate percentage composition of blood by plasma and formed elements?
About 55% plasma and 45% formed elements (mostly erythrocytes); the fraction of blood volume occupied by red cells is the hematocrit.
Name the three types of formed elements in blood and their primary functions.
Erythrocytes (red cells) carry $\ce{O2}$ and $\ce{CO2}$; leukocytes (white cells) provide immune defense; thrombocytes (platelets) mediate hemostasis/clotting.
What is the normal range of blood pH and which system is the main immediate buffer?
Normal arterial blood pH is $7.35$ to $7.45$; the bicarbonate buffer system ($\ce{H2CO3 <=> H+ + HCO3-}$) is the principal buffer.
What is the normal hemoglobin concentration in adult men and women?
Approximately $13.5$–$17.5$ g/dL in men and $12.0$–$15.5$ g/dL in women.
Define hemostasis and list its three main phases.
Hemostasis is the process that stops bleeding from a damaged vessel. Its phases are: (1) vascular spasm (vasoconstriction), (2) platelet plug formation, and (3) coagulation (blood clotting).
Contrast the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways and where they converge.
The intrinsic pathway is triggered by contact with exposed collagen (all factors within blood); the extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor (factor III) from damaged tissue. Both converge at the activation of factor X (the common pathway).
What is the final common step of coagulation catalyzed by thrombin?
Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen (factor I) into insoluble fibrin, which polymerizes and is cross-linked by factor XIIIa to stabilize the clot.
Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Vitamin K, which is required for gamma-carboxylation of these factors in the liver.
Differentiate innate from adaptive immunity.
Innate immunity is non-specific, immediate, and lacks memory (barriers, phagocytes, complement, inflammation). Adaptive immunity is antigen-specific, slower to develop, and forms immunological memory (lymphocytes/antibodies).
Contrast humoral and cell-mediated adaptive immunity.
Humoral immunity is mediated by B lymphocytes producing antibodies against extracellular pathogens; cell-mediated immunity is mediated by T lymphocytes (cytotoxic and helper) acting against intracellular pathogens and infected/tumor cells.
What are the five classes of immunoglobulins and one distinguishing feature of each?
IgG (most abundant, crosses placenta), IgA (mucosal secretions), IgM (first produced, pentamer), IgE (allergy/parasites), IgD (B-cell receptor).
Which cells are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system?
Neutrophils (first responders) and macrophages (derived from monocytes), which engulf and destroy pathogens.
Show the other 36 General Physiology flashcards
Describe the ABO blood group antigen and antibody pattern.
Type A has A antigen and anti-B antibodies; type B has B antigen and anti-A; type AB has both antigens and no antibodies (universal recipient); type O has neither antigen and both antibodies (universal donor).
What determines Rh (D) blood group status and why does it matter in pregnancy?
Presence of the D antigen makes a person Rh-positive; its absence Rh-negative. An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus can be sensitized, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies.
Which blood type is the universal donor for packed red cells and which is the universal recipient?
Type O-negative is the universal red cell donor; type AB-positive is the universal recipient.
Name the four chambers and four valves of the heart.
Chambers: right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle. Valves: tricuspid (right AV), pulmonary (semilunar), mitral/bicuspid (left AV), and aortic (semilunar).
Trace the path of blood through the heart and lungs starting from the vena cavae.
Vena cavae → right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta → body.
List the components of the cardiac conduction system in order.
Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → bundle of His → right and left bundle branches → Purkinje fibers.
What are the two main phases of the cardiac cycle and their meaning?
Systole (contraction and ejection of blood) and diastole (relaxation and filling of the chambers).
Define stroke volume and give the formula relating it to end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes.
Stroke volume is the blood ejected per beat: $$SV = EDV - ESV$$ Typical value is about $70$ mL.
State the formula for cardiac output and a typical resting value.
$$CO = HR \times SV$$ At rest, roughly $72\ \text{beats/min} \times 70\ \text{mL} \approx 5\ \text{L/min}$.
Define ejection fraction and its normal value.
Ejection fraction is the fraction of end-diastolic volume ejected per beat: $$EF = \frac{SV}{EDV} \times 100\%$$ Normal is about $55$–$70\%$.
What do the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave of the ECG represent?
The P wave is atrial depolarization, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarization (atrial repolarization is hidden within it), and the T wave is ventricular repolarization.
Describe the ionic basis of the ventricular myocyte action potential plateau (phase 2).
The plateau results from a balance between inward $\ce{Ca^{2+}}$ current through L-type calcium channels and outward $\ce{K+}$ current, prolonging depolarization and preventing tetany.
What generates the pacemaker (funny) current in SA node cells?
The slow inward $I_f$ current carried mainly by $\ce{Na+}$ (and some $\ce{K+}$) through HCN channels, causing spontaneous diastolic depolarization toward threshold.
State the fundamental hemodynamic equation relating flow, pressure, and resistance.
$$Q = \frac{\Delta P}{R}$$ where $Q$ is flow, $\Delta P$ is the pressure gradient, and $R$ is resistance (analogous to Ohm's law).
State Poiseuille's law and its most important implication for vascular resistance.
$$Q = \frac{\pi \Delta P r^{4}}{8 \eta L}$$ Flow is proportional to the fourth power of the radius, so small changes in vessel radius cause large changes in flow and resistance.
Define mean arterial pressure and give the estimating formula.
MAP is the average arterial pressure over one cardiac cycle: $$MAP \approx DBP + \frac{1}{3}(SBP - DBP)$$ or $MAP = CO \times TPR$.
Which blood vessels are the primary site of resistance and of gas/nutrient exchange?
Arterioles are the main resistance vessels (regulating blood pressure); capillaries are the site of exchange due to their thin walls and large total surface area.
Name the conducting and respiratory portions of the airway.
Conducting zone (no gas exchange): nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles. Respiratory zone (gas exchange): respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli.
What are pneumocytes type I and type II?
Type I pneumocytes are thin squamous cells forming the gas-exchange surface; type II pneumocytes secrete pulmonary surfactant and can regenerate the alveolar epithelium.
Explain how the diaphragm and intercostals produce quiet inspiration.
Contraction of the diaphragm (flattening downward) and external intercostals (raising the ribs) expands the thoracic cavity, lowering intrapleural and alveolar pressure below atmospheric so air flows in.
State Boyle's law and its relevance to breathing.
$$P_1 V_1 = P_2 V_2$$ At constant temperature, pressure varies inversely with volume; increasing thoracic volume lowers alveolar pressure to draw air in during inspiration.
What is pulmonary surfactant and why is it important?
A phospholipid–protein mixture (rich in dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine) secreted by type II pneumocytes that reduces alveolar surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse and reducing the work of breathing.
Define tidal volume, vital capacity, and residual volume.
Tidal volume is air moved per normal breath (~500 mL); vital capacity is the maximum air expelled after maximal inspiration (IRV + TV + ERV); residual volume is air remaining after maximal expiration (cannot be exhaled).
State Fick's law of diffusion as it applies to alveolar gas exchange.
$$V_{gas} \propto \frac{A \cdot D \cdot (P_1 - P_2)}{T}$$ Diffusion rate is proportional to surface area $A$, the diffusion coefficient $D$, and partial pressure difference, and inversely proportional to membrane thickness $T$.
How is oxygen primarily transported in the blood?
About 98% is bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin ($\ce{Hb} + \ce{O2} \rightarrow \ce{HbO2}$); only about 2% is dissolved in plasma.
What is the Bohr effect?
An increase in $\ce{CO2}$ or $\ce{H+}$ (lower pH) shifts the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, decreasing hemoglobin's affinity for $\ce{O2}$ and promoting $\ce{O2}$ unloading in active tissues.
In what forms is carbon dioxide transported in the blood, and which is dominant?
As bicarbonate ($\ce{HCO3-}$, ~70%, formed via $\ce{CO2 + H2O <=> H2CO3 <=> H+ + HCO3-}$), bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin (~23%), and dissolved in plasma (~7%).
Which brainstem centers control the basic rhythm of breathing?
The medullary respiratory center (dorsal and ventral respiratory groups) sets the basic rhythm, modulated by the pontine centers (pneumotaxic and apneustic areas).
Which chemoreceptors most powerfully regulate ventilation and to what stimulus?
Central chemoreceptors in the medulla respond mainly to increased $\ce{CO2}$ (via increased $\ce{H+}$ in CSF); peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic bodies) respond to low $\ce{O2}$, high $\ce{CO2}$, and low pH.
Name the divisions of the nervous system anatomically and functionally.
Anatomically: central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous system (nerves/ganglia). Functionally the PNS divides into somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (sympathetic and parasympathetic) systems.
Compare the actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Sympathetic (thoracolumbar) mediates 'fight or flight': increases heart rate, dilates pupils, dilates airways, inhibits digestion. Parasympathetic (craniosacral) mediates 'rest and digest': slows heart rate, constricts pupils, stimulates digestion.
Describe the sequence of events in chemical synaptic transmission.
An action potential opens voltage-gated $\ce{Ca^{2+}}$ channels at the presynaptic terminal; $\ce{Ca^{2+}}$ influx triggers vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release; the transmitter binds postsynaptic receptors, altering membrane potential (EPSP or IPSP).
What is the difference between an EPSP and an IPSP?
An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is a depolarization that brings the neuron toward threshold; an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is a hyperpolarization that moves it away from threshold.
Define a sensory receptor and list the main functional classes.
A structure that transduces a stimulus into electrical signals. Classes include mechanoreceptors (touch/pressure), thermoreceptors (temperature), photoreceptors (light), chemoreceptors (chemicals), and nociceptors (pain).
What is sensory transduction and receptor (generator) potential?
Transduction is conversion of a stimulus into a change in membrane potential; the resulting graded depolarization is the receptor or generator potential, which, if it reaches threshold, triggers action potentials in the afferent neuron.
Name the photoreceptors of the retina and their functional roles.
Rods provide high-sensitivity, monochromatic vision in dim light (scotopic); cones provide color vision and high acuity in bright light (photopic) and come in three types tuned to different wavelengths.
Same General Physiology syllabus in other exams
The General Physiology outline above is identical in these 3 exams:
BDS General Physiology FAQ
What is in the BDS General Physiology syllabus?
BDS General Physiology is split into 10 chapters: Cell Physiology, Blood and Immune System, Cardiovascular System, Respiratory System, Nervous System, Endocrine System, Renal System, Digestive System, Musculoskeletal System and Special Senses. Together they contain 43 topics and 105 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in BDS General Physiology?
10 chapters, containing 43 topics and 105 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Endocrine System, with 6 topics.
Are there flashcards for BDS General Physiology?
Yes — a 56-card General Physiology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.