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NEET MDS General Surgery Syllabus

The General Surgery syllabus for NEET MDS in full: 9 chapters, 32 topics and 98 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 General Surgery flashcards with answers.

9Chapters
32Topics
98Sub-topics
52Flashcards

General Surgery syllabus: all 9 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. General Surgery

     4 topics
    • Preoperative Care
      • Patient Assessment
      • Risk Stratification
      • Preoperative Investigations
      • Informed Consent
    • Postoperative Care
      • Monitoring and Support
      • Pain Management
      • Wound Care
      • Complications and Management
    • Surgical Infections
      • Types of Infections
      • Antibiotic Prophylaxis
      • Management of Surgical Site Infections
    • Surgical Techniques
      • Aseptic Techniques
      • Suturing and Knot Tying
      • Hemostasis

  2. Trauma Surgery

     5 topics
    • Initial Assessment and Management
      • Primary Survey (ABCDE)
      • Secondary Survey
      • Trauma Resuscitation
    • Head and Neck Trauma
      • Scalp Lacerations
      • Facial Fractures
      • Neck Injuries
    • Thoracic Trauma
      • Chest Wall Injuries
      • Pulmonary Contusion
      • Cardiac Injuries
    • Abdominal Trauma
      • Solid Organ Injuries
      • Hollow Viscus Injuries
      • Retroperitoneal Hematoma
    • Orthopedic Trauma
      • Fracture Management
      • Dislocations
      • Compartment Syndrome

  3. Gastrointestinal Surgery

     5 topics
    • Esophageal Surgery
      • Achalasia
      • Esophageal Cancer
      • Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
    • Gastric Surgery
      • Peptic Ulcer Disease
      • Gastric Cancer
      • Bariatric Surgery
    • Hepatobiliary Surgery
      • Liver Cirrhosis
      • Hepatocellular Carcinoma
      • Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis
    • Pancreatic Surgery
      • Pancreatitis
      • Pancreatic Cancer
      • Cystic Neoplasms
    • Colorectal Surgery
      • Colorectal Cancer
      • Inflammatory Bowel Disease
      • Diverticular Disease

  4. Cardiothoracic Surgery

     3 topics
    • Cardiac Surgery
      • Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)
      • Valve Replacement Surgery
      • Congenital Heart Defects
    • Thoracic Surgery
      • Lung Cancer Surgery
      • Thoracoscopic Surgery
      • Pleural Diseases
    • Vascular Surgery
      • Aortic Aneurysm
      • Peripheral Arterial Disease
      • Carotid Endarterectomy

  5. Neurosurgery

     3 topics
    • Cranial Surgery
      • Brain Tumors
      • Traumatic Brain Injury
      • Hydrocephalus
    • Spinal Surgery
      • Spinal Cord Injury
      • Degenerative Spine Disease
      • Spinal Tumors
    • Peripheral Nerve Surgery
      • Nerve Repair
      • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
      • Peripheral Nerve Tumors

  6. Pediatric Surgery

     3 topics
    • Neonatal Surgery
      • Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
      • Esophageal Atresia
      • Imperforate Anus
    • Pediatric Oncology
      • Wilms' Tumor
      • Neuroblastoma
      • Rhabdomyosarcoma
    • Pediatric Trauma
      • Pediatric Fractures
      • Abdominal Trauma
      • Head Injuries

  7. Plastic Surgery

     3 topics
    • Reconstructive Surgery
      • Burn Management
      • Cleft Lip and Palate
      • Breast Reconstruction
    • Cosmetic Surgery
      • Rhinoplasty
      • Liposuction
      • Facelift
    • Hand Surgery
      • Carpal Tunnel Release
      • Dupuytren's Contracture
      • Tendon Repair

  8. Urology

     3 topics
    • Renal Surgery
      • Kidney Stones
      • Renal Cell Carcinoma
      • Nephrectomy
    • Bladder Surgery
      • Bladder Cancer
      • Cystectomy
      • Urinary Diversion
    • Prostate Surgery
      • Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
      • Prostate Cancer
      • Prostatectomy

  9. Orthopedic Surgery

     3 topics
    • Joint Replacement
      • Hip Replacement
      • Knee Replacement
      • Shoulder Replacement
    • Spine Surgery
      • Spinal Fusion
      • Disc Herniation
      • Scoliosis Surgery
    • Sports Injuries
      • ACL Reconstruction
      • Meniscal Repair
      • Rotator Cuff Repair

NEET MDS General Surgery flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. What is the recommended preoperative fasting time for solids and clear fluids before elective surgery under general anaesthesia?

    Solids and non-clear fluids: 6 hours; clear fluids: 2 hours (the '6-4-2' rule, with 4 hours for breast milk).

  2. In the ASA physical status classification, what does ASA III denote?

    A patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating / a constant threat to life but limits activity (e.g., poorly controlled diabetes or hypertension).

  3. What is the antibiotic timing rule for surgical prophylaxis to prevent surgical site infection?

    Give a single IV dose within 60 minutes before skin incision (within 120 minutes for vancomycin/fluoroquinolones).

  4. How are surgical wounds classified by contamination, and what is the expected infection rate of a clean wound?

    Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and dirty. Clean wounds have an SSI rate of about 1-2%.

  5. What organism most commonly causes surgical site infections overall?

    Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA).

  6. What is the classic clinical triad of necrotizing fasciitis that mandates urgent surgical debridement?

    Pain out of proportion to findings, skin crepitus/gas, and rapidly spreading erythema with systemic toxicity; treatment is emergent debridement plus broad-spectrum antibiotics.

  7. What is the most common cause of postoperative fever in the first 24-48 hours?

    Atelectasis (the classic '5 Ws' begin with Wind/atelectasis).

  8. List the '5 Ws' mnemonic for the timeline of postoperative fever causes.

    Wind (atelectasis, day 1-2), Water (UTI, day 3-5), Wound (infection, day 5-7), Walking (DVT/PE, day 5+), Wonder drugs (drug fever/abscess, after day 7).

  9. What suture characteristic distinguishes absorbable from non-absorbable sutures, and give one example of each?

    Absorbable sutures are broken down by the body (e.g., Vicryl/polyglactin); non-absorbable sutures persist and need removal (e.g., Prolene/polypropylene, silk).

  10. In trauma resuscitation, what does the primary survey 'ABCDE' stand for?

    Airway with cervical spine control, Breathing, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability (neuro), Exposure/Environment.

  11. What are the components of the Glasgow Coma Scale and its score range?

    Eye opening (1-4), Verbal response (1-5), Motor response (1-6); total range 3-15.

  12. In ATLS hemorrhagic shock classification, which class corresponds to ~30-40% blood loss?

    Class III: 30-40% loss (1500-2000 mL), with tachycardia, hypotension, decreased urine output, and confusion—usually requires blood transfusion.

  13. What GCS score generally indicates the need for definitive airway protection (intubation) in head trauma?

    GCS of 8 or less ('GCS 8, intubate').

  14. What is the Cushing reflex/triad indicating raised intracranial pressure?

    Hypertension (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respiration.

  15. What is the immediately life-threatening difference between a tension pneumothorax and an open pneumothorax in management?

    Tension pneumothorax needs immediate needle decompression (2nd ICS midclavicular or 5th ICS anterior axillary) then chest tube; open ('sucking') chest wound needs a 3-sided occlusive dressing then chest tube.

  16. What is Beck's triad seen in cardiac tamponade?

    Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins (raised JVP).

  17. Name the lethal triad in major trauma resuscitation.

    Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy.

  18. What is the FAST scan and the four regions it examines?

    Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma—checks perihepatic (RUQ/Morrison's pouch), perisplenic (LUQ), pelvis (pouch of Douglas), and pericardium for free fluid/blood.

  19. Which solid abdominal organ is most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma?

    The spleen (the liver is most commonly injured in penetrating trauma).

  20. What classification grades open fractures and what does Gustilo type III indicate?

    The Gustilo-Anderson classification; type III is a high-energy open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage (IIIA adequate coverage, IIIB needs flap, IIIC has arterial injury).

Show the other 32 General Surgery flashcards

  1. What is the limb-threatening surgical emergency of raised intracompartmental pressure, and its hallmark sign?

    Compartment syndrome; hallmark is pain out of proportion worsened by passive stretch (the earliest of the 6 Ps); treatment is urgent fasciotomy.

  2. What is the most common type of esophageal carcinoma worldwide versus in Western/Barrett's settings?

    Squamous cell carcinoma is most common worldwide (upper/mid esophagus); adenocarcinoma predominates in the West and arises from Barrett's esophagus (lower third).

  3. What is the surgical procedure of choice for refractory GERD, and its principle?

    Nissen fundoplication—the gastric fundus is wrapped 360° around the lower esophagus to recreate the antireflux barrier.

  4. What is the most common type of hiatus hernia and which type carries higher risk of strangulation?

    Sliding (type I) is most common (~95%); rolling/paraesophageal (type II) carries the higher risk of strangulation.

  5. What is the Modified Glasgow (Imrie)/Ranson approach used for, and name three Ranson criteria at admission?

    To assess severity of acute pancreatitis; admission Ranson criteria include age >55, WBC >16,000, glucose >200 mg/dL, LDH >350, AST >250.

  6. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis worldwide, and the second most common?

    Gallstones (most common); alcohol is the second most common cause.

  7. What is Charcot's triad and Reynolds' pentad in acute cholangitis?

    Charcot's triad: fever, RUQ pain, jaundice. Reynolds' pentad adds hypotension and altered mental status.

  8. What operation is performed for resectable carcinoma of the head of the pancreas?

    Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)—removal of the pancreatic head, duodenum, gallbladder, distal bile duct (± distal stomach).

  9. What is the tumour marker associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

    CA 19-9.

  10. What is the most common location of colorectal cancer and the most useful tumour marker for follow-up?

    The rectum/sigmoid (left colon) is the most common location; CEA is used for monitoring recurrence.

  11. What is Hartmann's procedure and when is it used?

    Resection of the sigmoid/rectosigmoid with end colostomy and closure of the rectal stump; used in emergencies such as obstructed or perforated left-sided lesions/diverticulitis.

  12. What is the difference between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis in terms of bowel involvement?

    Crohn's: transmural, skip lesions, mouth to anus, granulomas. UC: mucosal, continuous, confined to colon/rectum starting distally.

  13. Which coronary conduit gives the best long-term patency in CABG?

    The left internal mammary (thoracic) artery (LIMA), typically grafted to the LAD.

  14. What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis worldwide?

    Rheumatic heart disease.

  15. What surgical staging system is used for non-small cell lung cancer and what determines resectability broadly?

    The TNM staging system; generally stages I-II and selected IIIA are resectable, while extensive mediastinal node involvement (N3) or distant metastasis is unresectable.

  16. What is the ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) value indicating significant peripheral arterial disease and critical ischemia?

    Normal 0.9-1.2; <0.9 indicates PAD; <0.4 (and ankle pressure <50 mmHg) indicates critical limb ischemia.

  17. What are the '6 Ps' of acute limb ischemia?

    Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paraesthesia, Paralysis, Perishingly cold (Poikilothermia).

  18. What is the threshold diameter for elective repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

    5.5 cm in diameter (or rapid expansion >0.5-1 cm/year, or symptomatic).

  19. What is the most common primary intracranial tumour in adults and its most malignant form?

    Gliomas; glioblastoma multiforme (WHO grade IV astrocytoma) is the most malignant.

  20. What is the standard surgical approach for a pituitary adenoma?

    Trans-sphenoidal (endoscopic/microsurgical) hypophysectomy.

  21. What is cauda equina syndrome and why is it a neurosurgical emergency?

    Compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots causing saddle anaesthesia, bladder/bowel dysfunction, and bilateral leg weakness; requires urgent decompression to prevent permanent deficits.

  22. What nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome and the surgical treatment?

    The median nerve (compressed under the flexor retinaculum); treatment is carpal tunnel release (division of the transverse carpal ligament).

  23. What is the reconstructive ladder in plastic surgery?

    A stepwise approach from simplest to most complex: secondary healing, primary closure, skin graft, local flap, regional flap, free (microvascular) tissue transfer.

  24. What is the difference between a split-thickness and full-thickness skin graft?

    Split-thickness (epidermis + part of dermis) covers large areas and the donor site re-epithelializes; full-thickness (epidermis + entire dermis) gives better cosmesis/less contracture but the donor site needs primary closure.

  25. What is the most common congenital surgical cause of bilious vomiting in a neonate, and the key imaging finding?

    Malrotation with midgut volvulus; upper GI contrast shows a 'corkscrew' duodenum / displaced duodenojejunal junction—it is a surgical emergency.

  26. What is the classic presentation and treatment of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

    Non-bilious projectile vomiting at 3-6 weeks, palpable 'olive' mass, hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis; treatment is Ramstedt pyloromyotomy after fluid correction.

  27. What is the most common extracranial solid malignant tumour of childhood arising from the adrenal/sympathetic chain?

    Neuroblastoma.

  28. What is the most common renal malignancy in children, and its name?

    Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma).

  29. What is the most common type of renal stone and the imaging investigation of choice for urolithiasis?

    Calcium oxalate stones; non-contrast CT KUB is the investigation of choice.

  30. What is the most common type of bladder cancer and its classic painless presenting symptom?

    Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma; classic presentation is painless gross hematuria.

  31. What surgical procedure relieves bladder outlet obstruction from benign prostatic hyperplasia, and which zone of the prostate is involved?

    TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate); BPH arises from the transition zone (whereas prostate cancer typically arises in the peripheral zone).

  32. What is the most common cause of a hemarthrosis after acute knee injury, and the classic clinical test?

    Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear; tested by the Lachman test (and anterior drawer).

Same General Surgery syllabus in other exams

The General Surgery outline above is identical in these 2 exams:

NEET MDS General Surgery FAQ

What is in the NEET MDS General Surgery syllabus?

NEET MDS General Surgery is split into 9 chapters: General Surgery, Trauma Surgery, Gastrointestinal Surgery, Cardiothoracic Surgery, Neurosurgery, Pediatric Surgery, Plastic Surgery, Urology and Orthopedic Surgery. Together they contain 32 topics and 98 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NEET MDS General Surgery?

9 chapters, containing 32 topics and 98 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma Surgery, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for NEET MDS General Surgery?

Yes — a 52-card General Surgery deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.