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Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) Torts Flashcards

56 question-and-answer cards covering Torts as it is examined in Multistate Bar Examination (MBE). 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.

56Cards in deck
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20Syllabus topics
~368Chars per answer
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24 sample cards from the Torts deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

  1. What is the strict liability rule for injuries caused by animals (wild vs. domestic)?

    Wild animals: owner is strictly liable for harm caused by the animal's dangerous propensities, even if domesticated. Domestic animals: owner is liable only if she knows or has reason to know of the animal's dangerous propensities (the 'one-bite' notion). Trespassing cattle/livestock: strict liability for property damage. Strict liability does not extend to trespassers (except where a vicious watchdog is kept).

  2. What are the five theories under which a products liability claim can be brought?

    (1) Intent (battery), (2) Negligence, (3) Strict products liability, (4) Implied warranties of merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose, and (5) Express warranty / misrepresentation. Strict products liability and negligence are the most heavily tested on the MBE.

  3. What are the elements of a strict products liability claim?

    (1) The defendant is a commercial supplier (merchant) of the product; (2) the product was defective when it left the defendant's control; (3) the product was not substantially altered; and (4) the plaintiff was making a foreseeable use of the product at the time of injury. The plaintiff need not be in privity with the defendant.

  4. What are the three types of product defects?

    (1) Manufacturing defect — the product departs from its intended design (differs from others off the line); judged against the manufacturer's own design. (2) Design defect — the entire product line is dangerous; tested by the consumer-expectation test or, more commonly, a reasonable-alternative-design/risk-utility test. (3) Warning defect (failure to warn) — inadequate instructions or failure to warn of non-obvious dangers.

  5. What is the 'reasonable alternative design' (risk-utility) test for a design defect?

    A product is defectively designed if the foreseeable risks of harm could have been reduced or avoided by adopting a reasonable alternative design, and the omission of that alternative rendered the product not reasonably safe. The plaintiff typically must show a feasible, cost-effective alternative design existed. This is the predominant modern test, supplementing the consumer-expectation test.

  6. In strict products liability, who can be a defendant and who can be a plaintiff?

    Defendants: any commercial supplier in the distribution chain — manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, and retailer (a casual/occasional seller is NOT subject to strict liability). Plaintiffs: any foreseeable plaintiff — purchasers, users, and even bystanders. Privity of contract is not required.

  7. What defenses are available in a strict products liability action?

    Comparative/contributory fault (depending on jurisdiction — many apply comparative principles), assumption of the risk, and misuse that is unforeseeable (foreseeable misuse does NOT bar recovery). The 'state of the art' defense may apply to design/warning claims. The defendant can also show the product was not defective or was substantially altered after leaving its control.

  8. What is the implied warranty of merchantability versus the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

    Merchantability (UCC 2-314): implied in every sale by a merchant; the goods are fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used. Fitness for a particular purpose (UCC 2-315): implied when the seller knows the buyer's particular purpose and that the buyer is relying on the seller's skill to select suitable goods. Both can be disclaimed and are subject to notice/privity rules.

  9. What are the elements of common-law defamation?

    (1) A defamatory statement (one that tends to harm reputation) of or concerning the plaintiff; (2) publication to a third party (intentional or negligent communication); (3) falsity (after constitutional cases); (4) fault on the defendant's part (under constitutional rules); and (5) damages (presumed for libel/slander per se, special damages otherwise).

  10. What is the difference between libel and slander, and what is slander per se?

    Libel is defamation in permanent/written form (general damages presumed). Slander is spoken defamation (plaintiff must prove special — pecuniary — damages) UNLESS it is slander per se. Slander per se categories (damages presumed): statements about (1) the plaintiff's business/profession, (2) commission of a serious crime, (3) having a loathsome disease, and (4) unchastity of a woman / sexual misconduct.

  11. Under New York Times v. Sullivan, what must a public official or public figure prove regarding fault in a defamation case?

    A public official or public figure must prove the defendant acted with 'actual malice' — meaning knowledge that the statement was false OR reckless disregard for whether it was true or false (a subjective standard). This is a constitutional requirement and must be shown by clear and convincing evidence.

  12. Under Gertz v. Robert Welch, what must a private-figure plaintiff prove on a matter of public concern?

    A private figure must prove at least negligence as to the statement's falsity to recover actual (compensatory) damages. To recover presumed or punitive damages, even a private figure must prove actual malice. If the matter is of purely private concern, states may allow presumed/punitive damages without actual malice.

  13. What are the absolute and qualified privileges in defamation?

    Absolute privileges (cannot be lost): statements by spouses to each other, and statements in judicial, legislative, and certain executive/official proceedings. Qualified (conditional) privileges: statements where there is a public interest in candor (e.g., references, reports to police, statements to those with a common interest); lost if abused — made outside scope or with malice.

  14. What are the affirmative defenses to defamation?

    (1) Truth — substantial truth is a complete defense (the defendant bears the burden where the constitutional cases don't shift falsity to the plaintiff); (2) Consent; (3) Absolute privilege; and (4) Qualified privilege (subject to loss through abuse/malice). Opinion that cannot be proven true or false is also protected.

  15. What are the four branches of invasion of privacy?

    (1) Appropriation of the plaintiff's name or likeness for commercial advantage; (2) Intrusion upon the plaintiff's seclusion (highly offensive to a reasonable person); (3) Public disclosure of private facts (private facts publicly disclosed, highly offensive); and (4) False light (publicly attributing to the plaintiff views/actions she doesn't hold, highly offensive). Privacy actions are personal and do not survive death (no privity; truth is not a defense to most).

  16. Compare 'false light' invasion of privacy with defamation.

    False light requires publicity (widespread dissemination), and the false attribution need only be highly offensive to a reasonable person (need not harm reputation). Defamation requires publication to even one third party and a statement harmful to reputation. Where the matter is of public concern, false light also requires proof of actual malice (Time, Inc. v. Hill).

  17. What are the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud/deceit)?

    (1) A misrepresentation of a material fact; (2) scienter — knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard; (3) intent to induce the plaintiff's reliance; (4) actual and justifiable reliance by the plaintiff; (5) damages (actual pecuniary loss). There is no liability for nondisclosure (silence) absent a duty to disclose.

  18. What are the elements of tortious interference with contract / business relations?

    (1) A valid contract or business expectancy between the plaintiff and a third party; (2) the defendant's knowledge of the relationship; (3) intentional interference by the defendant inducing breach or termination; and (4) resulting damages. Interference may be privileged (e.g., a defendant acting to protect its own legitimate financial or competitive interest, especially with mere prospective relationships).

  19. Distinguish private nuisance from public nuisance.

    Private nuisance: a substantial and unreasonable interference with another's use and enjoyment of his land (the plaintiff must have a possessory interest). Public nuisance: an unreasonable interference with the health, safety, or property rights of the community; a private individual may recover only if she suffered harm different in kind from that suffered by the public at large.

  20. What is the test for an actionable private nuisance, and how does it differ from trespass to land?

    Private nuisance requires interference that is both substantial (offensive to an average person in the community) and unreasonable (the gravity of harm outweighs the utility of the defendant's conduct). Unlike trespass (a physical invasion protecting the exclusive possession), nuisance protects use and enjoyment and typically involves intangible intrusions (odor, noise, smoke) — no physical entry needed.

  21. What is required for an employer to be vicariously liable for an employee's tort under respondeat superior?

    The employer is liable for torts committed by an employee acting within the scope of employment. Intentional torts are generally outside the scope unless force is inherent in the job (e.g., a bouncer), the tort furthers the employer's business, or is authorized. Minor 'detours' remain within scope; substantial 'frolics' do not.

  22. When is a hiring party vicariously liable for the torts of an independent contractor?

    General rule: a principal is NOT vicariously liable for the torts of an independent contractor. Exceptions: (1) inherently dangerous activities, and (2) non-delegable duties (e.g., a shopkeeper's duty to keep premises safe for customers). The hirer may still be directly liable for its own negligent selection/supervision.

  23. What is the difference between joint and several liability and several (proportionate) liability among multiple tortfeasors?

    Joint and several liability: each tortfeasor who caused an indivisible injury is liable for the entire judgment; the plaintiff may recover the full amount from any one (subject to contribution among defendants). Several (proportionate) liability: each defendant is liable only for his own percentage share of fault. Many comparative-fault states have modified or abolished joint and several liability.

  24. Distinguish contribution from indemnification among joint tortfeasors.

    Contribution: a defendant who pays more than her proportionate share recovers the excess from other tortfeasors, apportioned by relative fault (comparative contribution). Indemnification: shifts the ENTIRE loss to another party — available, e.g., where the indemnitee is only passively/vicariously liable (employer from employee) or under strict products liability up the distribution chain (retailer from manufacturer).

What this deck covers

The Torts deck follows the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) Torts syllabus — 5 chapters and 20 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 11.2 cards per chapter.

Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 368 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.

A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.

Torts flashcards FAQ

How many Torts flashcards are in this Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) deck?

56 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.

Are these Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) flashcards free?

Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 56-card deck is free inside the Examius app.

What do the Torts cards cover?

They follow the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) Torts syllabus — 5 chapters and 20 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.

How should I use these flashcards?

Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.