Medical Assistant Certification (CMA / RMA) Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is the difference between an internal (positive/procedural) control and an external control on a test device?

   An internal/built-in control verifies the test ran correctly (e.g., the control line on a pregnancy test); an external control is a separate known-value sample used to validate the kit/lot and instrument.

2. Why must you check reagent expiration dates and lot numbers before testing?

   Expired or improperly stored reagents can deteriorate and yield inaccurate results; documenting lot numbers allows traceability if a problem occurs.

3. What does an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) record?

   The electrical activity of the heart over time, detected through electrodes placed on the skin.

4. How many electrodes and how many leads are used in a standard 12-lead ECG?

   10 electrodes (6 chest/precordial + 4 limb) produce 12 leads (views) of the heart's electrical activity.

5. Where is the V1 chest electrode placed on a 12-lead ECG?

   In the 4th intercostal space at the right sternal border.

6. Where is the V2 chest lead placed?

   In the 4th intercostal space at the left sternal border.

7. Where are leads V4, V5, and V6 placed on the chest?

   V4 at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line; V5 at the anterior axillary line level with V4; V6 at the midaxillary line level with V4.

8. What do the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave represent on an ECG?

   P wave = atrial depolarization; QRS complex = ventricular depolarization; T wave = ventricular repolarization.

9. What is the standard paper speed and calibration for a routine ECG?

   Paper speed of 25 mm/second and standard calibration of 10 mm = 1 millivolt.

10. What is an artifact on an ECG and name a common cause?

    An abnormal signal not produced by the heart; common causes include patient movement/muscle tremor (somatic), AC electrical interference (60-cycle), wandering baseline, or loose electrodes.

11. How can 60-cycle (AC) interference on an ECG be reduced?

    Move electrical cords/devices away, ensure proper grounding, check that lead wires aren't crossed, and verify good electrode contact.

12. What is a Holter monitor and how long is it typically worn?

    A portable continuous ECG recorder worn for 24–48 hours to detect intermittent arrhythmias during normal daily activity.

13. What is the patient instructed to do while wearing a Holter monitor?

    Keep a diary/log of activities and symptoms with times, maintain normal activity, and avoid getting the device wet (no bathing/swimming).

14. What is the purpose of a cardiac (exercise) stress test?

    To evaluate the heart's response to exertion, typically using a treadmill or bike with continuous ECG and blood pressure monitoring to detect ischemia or arrhythmias.

15. What is a pharmacologic stress test and when is it used?

    A test using medication (e.g., adenosine, dobutamine) to simulate exercise stress on the heart; used for patients unable to exercise physically.

16. What does spirometry measure?

    Lung function — the volume and speed (flow) of air a patient can inhale and exhale.

17. What does FVC stand for in pulmonary function testing?

    Forced vital capacity — the total amount of air forcefully exhaled after a maximal inhalation.

18. What does FEV1 measure?

    Forced expiratory volume in 1 second — the volume of air forcefully exhaled in the first second of the FVC maneuver.

19. What does the FEV1/FVC ratio help distinguish?

    It distinguishes obstructive disease (reduced ratio, e.g., asthma/COPD) from restrictive disease (preserved or increased ratio with reduced volumes).

20. What patient coaching is essential during a spirometry test?

    Have the patient seal lips around the mouthpiece, take the deepest possible breath, then blast the air out as hard and fast as possible and continue exhaling fully; a nose clip is used.

21. What general patient prep is required before an abdominal ultrasound vs. a gallbladder ultrasound?

    Abdominal/gallbladder ultrasound often requires fasting (NPO ~6–8 hours) to reduce bowel gas and ensure gallbladder distension.

22. What patient prep and safety screening is critical before an MRI?

    Screen for and remove all metal (jewelry, implants, pacemakers, metal fragments); pacemakers and certain implants may be contraindications because of the strong magnetic field.

23. What key allergy must be screened before a contrast-enhanced CT or IV pyelogram?

    Allergy to iodine/iodinated contrast media (and shellfish allergy is often asked); renal function (creatinine/eGFR) is also checked before contrast.

24. What patient preparation is typically required before a colonoscopy or barium enema?

    Bowel prep — a clear liquid diet and laxative/cathartic regimen to empty the colon for clear visualization.

What this deck covers

Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing flashcards FAQ