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MBBS Pathology Flashcards

50 question-and-answer cards covering Pathology as it is examined in MBBS. 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.

50Cards in deck
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23Syllabus topics
~328Chars per answer
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24 sample cards from the Pathology deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

  1. Describe the morphologic sequence and complications of atherosclerosis.

    Sequence: endothelial injury → fatty streak (lipid-laden foam cells) → fibrofatty atheroma/plaque (lipid core with fibrous cap, smooth muscle, foam cells). Complications: plaque rupture/thrombosis (causing MI/stroke), calcification, aneurysm formation, and critical luminal stenosis. Major risk factors: hyperlipidemia, hypertension, smoking, diabetes.

  2. List the cardiac biomarkers used in acute myocardial infarction and their timing.

    Troponin I/T: rises in 3–6 hours, peaks ~24 hours, remains elevated 7–10 days (most sensitive/specific). CK-MB: rises 3–12 hours, peaks ~24 hours, normalizes in 48–72 hours (useful for detecting re-infarction). Myoglobin rises earliest (1–2 hours) but is non-specific.

  3. Describe the evolving histology of a myocardial infarct over time.

    0–4 h: no change (or wavy fibers). 4–24 h: coagulative necrosis, contraction bands. 1–3 days: neutrophil infiltration. 3–7 days: macrophages remove dead myocytes (wall weakest — rupture risk). 1–2 weeks: granulation tissue. >2 months: dense collagenous scar.

  4. Compare the major valvular lesions of acute rheumatic fever and the diagnostic histologic finding.

    Acute rheumatic fever follows group A streptococcal pharyngitis (molecular mimicry). It causes pancarditis; the most affected valve is the mitral (then aortic). The pathognomonic histologic lesion is the Aschoff body (focus of fibrinoid necrosis with Anitschkov 'caterpillar' macrophages). Chronic RHD causes mitral stenosis ('fish-mouth').

  5. List the major restrictive vs obstructive pulmonary diseases and the key spirometry difference.

    Obstructive (asthma, COPD/emphysema, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis): airflow limitation, $\frac{FEV_{1}}{FVC} < 0.7$, increased total lung capacity. Restrictive (interstitial fibrosis, sarcoidosis, pneumoconioses): reduced lung volumes with normal or increased $\frac{FEV_{1}}{FVC}$ and decreased FVC/TLC.

  6. Contrast emphysema and chronic bronchitis (the two forms of COPD).

    Emphysema: permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles with alveolar wall destruction (loss of elastic recoil); centriacinar (smoking) or panacinar ($\alpha_{1}$-antitrypsin deficiency); 'pink puffer.' Chronic bronchitis: productive cough ≥3 months in ≥2 consecutive years, mucous gland hyperplasia (Reid index increased); 'blue bloater.'

  7. Define the histologic features of diffuse alveolar damage (ARDS) and the key clinical finding.

    Diffuse alveolar damage shows hyaline membranes (fibrin-rich exudate lining alveoli), interstitial/alveolar edema, and type II pneumocyte hyperplasia. Clinically, ARDS presents as acute-onset refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (normal wedge pressure).

  8. Compare the most common histologic types of lung cancer and their key associations.

    Adenocarcinoma (most common overall, peripheral, also in non-smokers/women; EGFR/ALK mutations). Squamous cell carcinoma (central, smoking, may cause hypercalcemia via PTHrP, keratin pearls). Small cell carcinoma (central, smoking, neuroendocrine, paraneoplastic SIADH/Cushing/Lambert-Eaton, treated medically). Large cell (undifferentiated, poor prognosis).

  9. Compare peptic ulcers caused by H. pylori in the duodenum vs stomach and the underlying mechanism.

    H. pylori produces urease (raising local pH to survive) and causes ~90% of duodenal and ~70% of gastric ulcers. Duodenal ulcers relate to increased acid/H. pylori antral gastritis (pain relieved by food). Gastric ulcers relate to impaired mucosal defense (pain worse with food) and carry malignancy risk, requiring biopsy.

  10. Contrast Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis (inflammatory bowel disease).

    Crohn: any site (mouth to anus), skip lesions, transmural inflammation, non-caseating granulomas, 'cobblestone' mucosa, fistulae/strictures, terminal ileum common. Ulcerative colitis: colon only, continuous from rectum, mucosa/submucosa inflammation, crypt abscesses, pseudopolyps, no granulomas, higher colorectal cancer risk, associated with PSC.

  11. Describe the adenoma–carcinoma sequence in colorectal cancer and the key gene mutations.

    Normal epithelium → (APC loss) → adenoma → (KRAS mutation) → adenoma growth → (loss of 18q/SMAD, then TP53 loss) → carcinoma. APC mutation is the early gatekeeper (germline mutation causes FAP). A separate microsatellite instability pathway involves defective mismatch repair (MLH1/MSH2) seen in Lynch syndrome.

  12. Compare nephritic and nephrotic syndromes by their defining features.

    Nephritic: hematuria with RBC casts, hypertension, oliguria, azotemia, mild-moderate proteinuria ($< 3.5\,\text{g/day}$) — inflammatory (e.g., post-streptococcal GN). Nephrotic: heavy proteinuria ($> 3.5\,\text{g/day}$), hypoalbuminemia, generalized edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria (e.g., minimal change disease, membranous nephropathy).

  13. Match these glomerular diseases to their characteristic findings: post-streptococcal GN, membranous nephropathy, minimal change disease, IgA nephropathy.

    Post-streptococcal GN: subepithelial 'humps' on EM, granular IF, low C3. Membranous nephropathy: subepithelial 'spike and dome,' anti-PLA2R antibodies (nephrotic in adults). Minimal change disease: normal LM, foot process effacement on EM (nephrotic in children, steroid-responsive). IgA nephropathy (Berger): mesangial IgA deposits, hematuria after infection.

  14. Differentiate prerenal, intrinsic (renal), and postrenal acute kidney injury, and give the key urinary marker for prerenal vs intrinsic.

    Prerenal: reduced perfusion (hypovolemia/heart failure); $FE_{Na} < 1\%$, BUN:Cr $> 20:1$, concentrated urine. Intrinsic: tubular/glomerular damage (ATN most common); $FE_{Na} > 2\%$, muddy brown casts, BUN:Cr $\approx 10–15:1$. Postrenal: obstruction (stones, BPH) — bilateral or single functioning kidney.

  15. Compare the major anemias by red cell size (MCV) with one cause each.

    Microcytic (MCV $< 80\,\text{fL}$): iron deficiency, thalassemia, sideroblastic, chronic disease (late). Normocytic (MCV 80–100): acute blood loss, hemolysis, aplastic, chronic disease. Macrocytic (MCV $> 100$): vitamin $B_{12}$/folate deficiency (megaloblastic), liver disease, alcohol, hypothyroidism.

  16. Contrast Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, including the diagnostic cell of Hodgkin.

    Hodgkin lymphoma: contiguous nodal spread, localized, Reed-Sternberg cells (CD15+, CD30+, 'owl-eye' binucleate), bimodal age, often curable. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: multifocal/non-contiguous spread, more often extranodal, no Reed-Sternberg cells, B- or T-cell origin, variable prognosis.

  17. Describe the pathology of chronic myeloid leukemia, including its defining genetic abnormality.

    CML is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with the Philadelphia chromosome — t(9;22) translocation creating the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene encoding a constitutively active tyrosine kinase. It presents with marked leukocytosis (all granulocyte stages), splenomegaly, low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, and can transform to blast crisis. Treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (imatinib).

  18. Compare Graves disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis (autoimmune thyroid diseases).

    Graves: hyperthyroidism from anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies (TSI); diffuse goiter, exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema. Hashimoto: hypothyroidism from autoimmune destruction (anti-TPO, anti-thyroglobulin antibodies); lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers and Hürthle cells; increased risk of B-cell (MALT) lymphoma.

  19. Describe the chronic microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus and their pathologic basis.

    Chronic hyperglycemia causes non-enzymatic glycosylation (AGEs) and the polyol pathway. Microvascular: retinopathy, nephropathy (Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules, basement membrane thickening), and neuropathy. Macrovascular: accelerated atherosclerosis → MI, stroke, peripheral vascular disease. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis is characteristic.

  20. Differentiate the histopathology of Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease.

    Alzheimer disease: cortical atrophy with extracellular β-amyloid (senile) plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles (hyperphosphorylated tau). Parkinson disease: loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (depigmentation) with intracytoplasmic Lewy bodies (α-synuclein aggregates).

  21. Describe the pathophysiology of gout and the characteristic crystal findings.

    Gout results from hyperuricemia ($> 6.8\,\text{mg/dL}$) causing deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints (classically first MTP — podagra). Crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to the polarizer). Chronic deposits form tophi. Contrast: pseudogout uses calcium pyrophosphate crystals — rhomboid, positively birefringent.

  22. Compare the histologic hallmarks of tuberculosis vs a pyogenic (bacterial) abscess.

    Tuberculosis: caseating (caseous) granulomas — central caseous necrosis surrounded by epithelioid macrophages, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes; acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen stain (type IV hypersensitivity). Pyogenic abscess: localized collection of pus (liquefactive necrosis with neutrophils), typically from Staphylococcus/Streptococcus.

  23. Classify the four types of hypersensitivity reactions (Gell and Coombs) with one example each.

    Type I (immediate/IgE-mediated, e.g., anaphylaxis, allergic asthma). Type II (antibody-mediated cytotoxic, e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture). Type III (immune complex, e.g., SLE, serum sickness, post-streptococcal GN). Type IV (delayed, T-cell mediated, e.g., contact dermatitis, TB granuloma, transplant rejection).

  24. Define amyloidosis and state the diagnostic staining characteristic.

    Amyloidosis is extracellular deposition of misfolded proteins in a β-pleated sheet configuration. It stains with Congo red, showing apple-green birefringence under polarized light. Major types: AL (light chain, plasma cell dyscrasias) and AA (serum amyloid A, chronic inflammation). Deposits cause organ dysfunction (e.g., restrictive cardiomyopathy, nephrotic syndrome).

What this deck covers

The Pathology deck follows the MBBS Pathology syllabus — 4 chapters and 23 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 12.5 cards per chapter.

Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 328 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.

A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.

Pathology flashcards FAQ

How many Pathology flashcards are in this MBBS deck?

50 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.

Are these MBBS flashcards free?

Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 50-card deck is free inside the Examius app.

What do the Pathology cards cover?

They follow the MBBS Pathology syllabus — 4 chapters and 23 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.

How should I use these flashcards?

Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.