Incorporated Engineer (IEng) Technical and Commercial Leadership (UK-SPEC Competence C) Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Technical and Commercial Leadership (UK-SPEC Competence C) deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What is commercial awareness in an engineering context?

   Understanding how engineering decisions affect business outcomes — costs, profit, cash flow, customers, competition, contracts and market conditions — and acting to add commercial value.

2. What are the essential elements required to form a legally binding contract?

   Offer, acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations, and capacity (and lawful purpose). Without these a contract is not enforceable.

3. Distinguish a fixed-price (lump-sum) contract from a cost-reimbursable contract.

   In fixed-price the supplier delivers for an agreed price, bearing cost-overrun risk; in cost-reimbursable the buyer pays actual allowable costs plus a fee, bearing more cost risk but gaining flexibility.

4. What are liquidated damages in a contract?

   A pre-agreed, genuine estimate of loss payable by a party (usually the contractor) for a specified breach such as late completion, avoiding the need to prove actual loss.

5. What is the purpose of a quality management system (QMS)?

   A formalised set of policies, processes and procedures that direct and control an organisation to consistently meet customer and regulatory requirements and to drive improvement.

6. What is ISO 9001 and what is it based on?

   The international standard specifying requirements for a quality management system. It is based on seven quality management principles and the process approach, using the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle and risk-based thinking.

7. List the seven quality management principles underpinning ISO 9001.

   Customer focus, Leadership, Engagement of people, Process approach, Improvement, Evidence-based decision making, and Relationship management.

8. What are the four stages of the PDCA (Deming) cycle?

   Plan (set objectives and processes), Do (implement), Check (measure and compare against objectives), Act (take action to improve). It drives continual improvement.

9. Distinguish quality assurance (QA) from quality control (QC).

   QA is process-oriented and proactive — building processes to prevent defects; QC is product-oriented and reactive — inspecting/testing outputs to detect defects before delivery.

10. What is a quality audit and what are its three main types?

    A systematic, independent examination to verify conformance to requirements. Types: first-party (internal/self), second-party (customer audits supplier), and third-party (independent body, e.g. for certification).

11. What is the difference between a corrective action and a preventive action?

    Corrective action eliminates the cause of an existing nonconformity to prevent recurrence; preventive action eliminates the cause of a potential nonconformity to prevent it occurring in the first place.

12. What is the core aim of Lean methodology and what are its main wastes?

    To maximise customer value while minimising waste. The wastes (TIMWOOD/DOWNTIME) are: Transport, Inventory, Motion, Waiting, Over-production, Over-processing, Defects (plus unused talent/Skills).

13. What is the goal of Six Sigma and what process does it use?

    To reduce process variation and defects toward $3.4$ defects per million opportunities. It uses the DMAIC cycle: Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve, Control.

14. What does a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) do, and what distinguishes a leading from a lagging indicator?

    A KPI is a quantifiable measure of progress toward an objective. A leading indicator predicts future performance (e.g. near-misses), while a lagging indicator measures past outcomes (e.g. defect rate).

15. Define Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE) and its three factors.

    $$OEE = \text{Availability} \times \text{Performance} \times \text{Quality}$$ A measure of how effectively equipment is utilised, combining uptime, speed and good-output rate.

16. What is the difference between a hazard, a risk and an issue in project terms?

    A hazard is a potential source of harm; a risk is an uncertain future event with a probability and impact that may affect objectives; an issue is a risk that has already occurred (it is certain).

17. How is the risk score (exposure) commonly quantified?

    $$\text{Risk} = \text{Probability (Likelihood)} \times \text{Impact (Consequence)}$$ Often plotted on a probability-impact (risk) matrix to rank and prioritise risks.

18. What are the five standard risk response strategies for threats?

    Avoid (eliminate the cause), Reduce/Mitigate (lower probability or impact), Transfer (shift to a third party, e.g. insurance), Accept (tolerate and monitor), and Escalate. For opportunities: exploit, enhance, share, accept.

19. What is the purpose of a risk register?

    A central document recording identified risks, their cause, probability, impact, owner, planned responses and status — used to track and manage risks throughout the project lifecycle.

20. What is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk?

    Inherent (gross) risk is the level before any controls are applied; residual (net) risk is the level remaining after mitigation controls have been put in place.

21. In risk mitigation, what is the difference between a contingency plan and a fallback plan?

    A contingency plan is the prepared response executed if an identified risk occurs; a fallback (secondary) plan is the backup used if the primary response proves ineffective.

22. What is a risk trigger?

    A warning sign, event or condition indicating that a risk is about to occur or has occurred, prompting the responsible owner to initiate the planned response.

23. What is a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) and how is its Risk Priority Number calculated?

    A structured method to identify potential failure modes and their effects. $$RPN = S \times O \times D$$ where S = Severity, O = Occurrence, D = Detection; higher RPN means higher priority for action.

24. Why is it important to allocate a risk owner to each identified risk?

    To assign clear accountability for monitoring the risk, implementing the agreed response and reporting on status, ensuring risks do not go unmanaged.

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Technical and Commercial Leadership (UK-SPEC Competence C) flashcards FAQ