🇬🇧 CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) · flashcards

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice Flashcards

58 question-and-answer cards covering Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice as it is examined in CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ). 24 of them are printed below, taken from across the deck — no signup, no paywall on the preview.

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24 sample cards from the Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

  1. What are the doctrines of revival and republication of wills?

    Revival (s.22 Wills Act 1837) brings a previously revoked will back into effect by re-execution or by a codicil showing intention to revive (a destroyed will cannot be revived). Republication re-executes or confirms an existing will by codicil, giving it effect as if made on the date of the codicil.

  2. What is the doctrine of dependent relative revocation?

    Where a testator revokes a will conditionally - intending the revocation to be effective only if some other outcome occurs (e.g. a new will is validly made) - and that condition is not satisfied, the revocation is treated as ineffective and the original will may stand.

  3. Under the intestacy rules, what does a surviving spouse/civil partner receive where the deceased also leaves issue (children)?

    The spouse/civil partner takes: (1) all personal chattels; (2) a statutory legacy (a fixed sum, currently £322,000) plus interest; and (3) one half of the residue absolutely. The remaining half of the residue passes to the issue on the statutory trusts.

  4. Under the intestacy rules, what does a surviving spouse/civil partner receive where the deceased leaves NO issue?

    The surviving spouse or civil partner takes the entire estate absolutely. (Since the Inheritance and Trustees' Powers Act 2014, other relatives no longer share where there are no children.)

  5. What is the statutory order of entitlement on intestacy where there is no surviving spouse or civil partner?

    The estate passes on the statutory trusts in order to: (1) issue; then if none (2) parents; (3) brothers and sisters of the whole blood; (4) brothers and sisters of the half blood; (5) grandparents; (6) uncles and aunts of the whole blood; (7) uncles and aunts of the half blood; and finally (8) the Crown as bona vacantia.

  6. What does it mean to take 'on the statutory trusts' under intestacy, and what is the survivorship/contingency requirement?

    Issue (and certain other relatives) take in equal shares contingent on reaching 18 or marrying earlier, with per stirpes substitution so that the issue of a relative who predeceased take their parent's share equally.

  7. What is the survivorship condition for a spouse/civil partner under the intestacy rules?

    The spouse or civil partner must survive the intestate by 28 days to inherit; if they die within that period, the estate is distributed as though they had not survived the intestate.

  8. Who may apply for reasonable financial provision under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975?

    A spouse/civil partner; a former spouse/civil partner who has not remarried; a cohabitee of at least 2 years immediately before death; a child of the deceased; a person treated as a child of the family; and any other person maintained (wholly or partly) by the deceased immediately before death.

  9. What are the two standards of 'reasonable financial provision' under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975?

    The surviving spouse/civil partner standard - such provision as is reasonable in all the circumstances, whether or not required for maintenance. For all other applicants, the maintenance standard - such provision as is reasonable for their maintenance only.

  10. What is the time limit for bringing a claim under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975?

    An application must be made within 6 months of the date of the grant of representation, though the court has discretion to extend this period.

  11. What is the difference between a grant of probate and a grant of letters of administration?

    A grant of probate is issued to executors named in a valid will. Letters of administration (with the will annexed) are granted where there is a valid will but no able/willing executor. Letters of administration (simple) are granted where the deceased died wholly intestate.

  12. What is the order of priority to a grant of letters of administration on intestacy (NCPR 1987 r.22)?

    In order: (1) surviving spouse/civil partner; (2) children of the deceased (issue); (3) parents; (4) brothers and sisters of the whole blood; (5) brothers and sisters of the half blood; (6) grandparents; (7) uncles and aunts of the whole blood; (8) uncles and aunts of the half blood - reflecting the order of entitlement to the estate.

  13. What is an executor's 'chain of representation' and how does it differ from the executor's year?

    The chain of representation (s.7 Administration of Estates Act 1925) means that the sole/last surviving executor's own executor automatically becomes executor of the original estate. The 'executor's year' is the convention that PRs are not bound to distribute the estate before one year from death.

  14. What are the principal duties and powers of personal representatives in administering an estate?

    Duties: to collect and get in the real and personal estate of the deceased and administer it according to law (s.25 AEA 1925), pay debts, and distribute to those entitled. Powers include the power to sell, appropriate assets (s.41 AEA 1925), invest (Trustee Act 2000), appoint trustees, and run any business for the purpose of administration.

  15. What is the order in which a solvent estate's assets are used to pay debts and liabilities (s.34 / Sch.1 Pt II AEA 1925)?

    Statutory order: (1) property undisposed of by will (subject to retaining a pecuniary legacy fund); (2) residue; (3) property set aside to meet pecuniary legacies; (4) property specifically given for payment of debts; (5) property charged with debts; (6) the pecuniary legacy fund; (7) property specifically devised/bequeathed (rateably); and (8) appointed property.

  16. How is an insolvent estate administered, and what is the order of priority for debts?

    Where assets are insufficient to pay all debts, the statutory order applies: (1) reasonable funeral, testamentary and administration expenses; (2) secured creditors; (3) preferential debts; (4) ordinary unsecured debts; and (5) interest and deferred debts - creditors of equal rank abate proportionately.

  17. How can personal representatives protect themselves against unknown creditors and missing beneficiaries?

    By advertising under s.27 Trustee Act 1925 in the London Gazette and a local newspaper (waiting at least 2 months), which protects PRs from personal liability to unknown claimants. For missing/uncertain beneficiaries they can seek a Benjamin order, take indemnity, or obtain missing beneficiary insurance.

  18. What is the basic charge to inheritance tax on death, and what is the nil rate band?

    IHT is charged at 40% on the value of the death estate above the nil rate band (NRB). The NRB is £325,000; the rate is reduced to 36% where at least 10% of the net estate is left to charity.

  19. What is the residence nil rate band (RNRB) and when is it available?

    An additional band (currently £175,000) available where a residence is left on death to direct descendants (children/grandchildren). It is tapered away by £1 for every £2 by which the estate exceeds £2 million, and an unused band is transferable between spouses/civil partners.

  20. How does the transferable nil rate band between spouses and civil partners operate?

    On the death of the survivor, the unused proportion of the first spouse's/civil partner's NRB may be claimed and added to the survivor's NRB, potentially giving a combined NRB of up to £650,000 (plus transferable RNRB).

  21. What is the difference between a potentially exempt transfer (PET) and a chargeable lifetime transfer (CLT) for IHT?

    A PET is a lifetime gift to an individual that is exempt if the donor survives 7 years, but becomes chargeable if death occurs within 7 years. A CLT (e.g. a gift into most trusts) is immediately chargeable at the lifetime rate of 20% above the NRB, with a further charge if death occurs within 7 years.

  22. How does taper relief reduce inheritance tax on lifetime gifts made within 7 years of death?

    Taper relief reduces the tax payable (not the value transferred) on gifts made between 3 and 7 years before death: 0-3 years 0%; 3-4 years 20%; 4-5 years 40%; 5-6 years 60%; 6-7 years 80% reduction in the tax charge.

  23. Name the principal lifetime and death exemptions and reliefs from inheritance tax.

    Spouse/civil partner exemption (unlimited transfers between spouses); charity exemption; annual exemption (£3,000 per year); small gifts (£250 per donee); normal expenditure out of income; gifts in consideration of marriage; plus Business Property Relief and Agricultural Property Relief (up to 100% on qualifying assets).

  24. When must inheritance tax on the death estate be paid, and when must the IHT account (IHT400) be delivered?

    IHT is generally due by the end of the 6th month after the month of death; interest runs thereafter. The IHT account must be delivered within 12 months of the end of the month of death. Tax on certain assets (e.g. land, businesses) may be paid in 10 annual instalments.

What this deck covers

The Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice deck follows the CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice syllabus — 4 chapters and 14 topics — so questions land on material that is genuinely examinable rather than trivia around it. That works out to roughly 14.5 cards per chapter.

Answers are written to be recallable, not just readable — averaging about 269 characters, which is long enough to carry the reasoning and short enough to say out loud.

A deck like this earns its keep on the second and third pass. Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then use the cards to find the specific facts that have not stuck.

Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice flashcards FAQ

How many Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice flashcards are in this CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) deck?

58 cards. This page previews 24 of them, sampled evenly across the deck so you can judge the difficulty before installing anything.

Are these CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) flashcards free?

Yes. The preview here is free to read with no signup, and the full 58-card deck is free inside the Examius app.

What do the Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice cards cover?

They follow the CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Advanced Stage: Property and Probate Practice syllabus — 4 chapters and 14 topics — so the questions track what is actually examinable.

How should I use these flashcards?

Read the syllabus first so you know the shape of the subject, then drill the deck. Examius schedules each card with spaced repetition, so cards you keep missing come back sooner and ones you know drift further apart.