Chartered Insurance Institute (CII) Qualifications Investment Principles, Portfolios and Risk (R02) Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Investment Principles, Portfolios and Risk (R02) deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. Compare the income tax treatment of an EIS, a VCT and an SEIS in terms of upfront relief.

   EIS gives 30% income tax relief on up to £1m (or £2m if knowledge-intensive) invested. SEIS gives 50% relief on up to £200,000. A VCT gives 30% relief on up to £200,000. All have minimum holding periods (EIS/SEIS 3 years, VCT 5 years) and offer further capital gains advantages.

2. How is a UK life assurance investment bond taxed internally and what is the '5% rule'?

   A UK bond suffers tax within the life fund (broadly basic-rate equivalent on income and gains), so it is treated as having had basic-rate tax paid. Investors may withdraw up to 5% of the original premium each year for 20 years with no immediate tax — a tax-deferred return of capital; excesses and final encashment are assessed under chargeable event rules.

3. What is 'top-slicing relief' on a life assurance bond chargeable gain?

   Top-slicing spreads a chargeable gain over the number of complete years the bond was held to determine the rate of higher/additional-rate tax. The gain is divided by the number of years, the tax on the 'slice' is calculated and then multiplied back, potentially reducing or removing higher-rate liability.

4. How does the taxation of an offshore bond differ from an onshore (UK) bond?

   An offshore bond enjoys 'gross roll-up' — little or no tax within the fund — so it may grow faster, but the policyholder has no basic-rate tax credit and the full gain is taxable on a chargeable event. Onshore bonds carry a deemed basic-rate credit but suffer internal tax.

5. Distinguish 'risk' from 'return' and define the two main components of total return.

   Return is the gain (or loss) from an investment; risk is the uncertainty/variability around that expected return. Total return = income return (dividends/interest/rent) + capital return (change in capital value).

6. How is the standard deviation used as a measure of investment risk?

   Standard deviation measures the dispersion of returns around the mean (expected) return — the volatility. A higher standard deviation means greater variability and thus higher risk. It is the square root of variance: $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^{2}}$.

7. Define 'systematic' (market) risk versus 'unsystematic' (specific) risk, and state which one diversification removes.

   Systematic risk is market-wide risk affecting all assets (e.g. interest rates, recession) and cannot be diversified away. Unsystematic (specific/idiosyncratic) risk is unique to an individual security/sector and CAN be reduced through diversification.

8. What does the correlation coefficient measure, and what correlation gives the greatest diversification benefit?

   The correlation coefficient (between $-1$ and $+1$) measures how two assets' returns move together. Diversification benefit is greatest when correlation is low or negative; a correlation of $-1$ (perfect negative) offers the maximum risk reduction, while $+1$ offers none.

9. State the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula and what 'beta' represents.

   $$E(R_{i}) = R_{f} + \beta_{i}\left(E(R_{m}) - R_{f}\right)$$ where $R_f$ is the risk-free rate, $E(R_m)$ the expected market return and $\beta_i$ the asset's beta — its sensitivity to market movements. $\beta = 1$ moves with the market, $>1$ is more volatile, $<1$ less volatile.

10. What does the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) assert, and name its three forms?

    The EMH asserts that asset prices fully reflect available information, making it hard to consistently outperform. Forms: weak (prices reflect past price data, so technical analysis fails), semi-strong (prices reflect all public information, so fundamental analysis fails) and strong (prices reflect all information, including private/insider).

11. In Modern Portfolio Theory, what is the 'efficient frontier'?

    The efficient frontier is the set of optimal portfolios offering the highest expected return for each level of risk (or the lowest risk for a given return). Rational investors choose portfolios on this frontier; those below it are sub-optimal.

12. Contrast strategic asset allocation with tactical asset allocation.

    Strategic asset allocation sets the long-term benchmark mix of asset classes based on the client's objectives, risk profile and time horizon. Tactical asset allocation makes short-term deviations from that benchmark to exploit perceived market opportunities, then reverts.

13. Explain the principle and purpose of portfolio rebalancing.

    Rebalancing periodically restores a portfolio to its strategic asset allocation by selling assets that have grown beyond target weights and buying those below target. It controls risk drift and imposes a disciplined 'sell high, buy low' approach.

14. What is the difference between 'active' and 'passive' investment management?

    Active management seeks to outperform a benchmark through stock selection and timing, with higher charges. Passive management aims to replicate (track) an index at low cost, accepting the market return. The choice links to one's belief in market efficiency.

15. Define the Sharpe ratio and state what it measures.

    $$\text{Sharpe ratio} = \frac{R_{p} - R_{f}}{\sigma_{p}}$$ It measures excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate) per unit of total risk (standard deviation) — i.e. risk-adjusted return. A higher Sharpe ratio is better.

16. How does the Treynor ratio differ from the Sharpe ratio?

    The Treynor ratio also measures excess return per unit of risk but uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation: $\text{Treynor} = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\beta_p}$. It is appropriate for well-diversified portfolios where unsystematic risk is negligible.

17. What does 'alpha' represent in performance measurement?

    Alpha (Jensen's alpha) is the return earned above or below that predicted by CAPM for the portfolio's level of systematic risk. A positive alpha indicates the manager added value (outperformed on a risk-adjusted basis); a negative alpha indicates underperformance.

18. Distinguish a money-weighted rate of return from a time-weighted rate of return.

    Money-weighted return (an IRR) is affected by the size and timing of cash flows into/out of the fund, reflecting the investor's actual experience. Time-weighted return removes the distorting effect of cash flows, measuring the manager's underlying performance — making it the fairer basis for comparing managers.

19. In the 'know your client' process, what are the key factors used to assess a client's capacity for an investment strategy?

    Investment objectives, time horizon, attitude to risk (willingness), capacity for loss (financial ability to absorb falls), income and liquidity needs, existing assets/diversification, tax position, and ethical preferences. Both attitude to risk and capacity for loss must be assessed.

20. Why must 'attitude to risk' and 'capacity for loss' be assessed separately when matching investments to a client?

    Attitude to risk is the client's psychological willingness to take risk; capacity for loss is their financial ability to withstand losses without harming their standard of living or goals. A client may be willing but unable (or vice versa), so the more cautious of the two should govern the recommendation.

21. What is 'shortfall risk' and which type of client is most exposed to it?

    Shortfall risk is the danger that an investment's return is insufficient to meet a specific future liability or goal (e.g. a retirement income target). Cautious investors holding low-return assets like cash over long horizons are most exposed, as inflation erodes real value.

22. Define 'liquidity risk' and 'currency risk' as specific investment risks.

    Liquidity risk is the risk of being unable to sell an asset quickly at or near its fair value (e.g. direct property, small-cap shares). Currency (exchange-rate) risk is the risk that movements in foreign exchange rates reduce the value, in the investor's home currency, of overseas assets.

23. What do ESG factors stand for, and how does 'negative screening' differ from 'positive (best-in-class) screening'?

    ESG = Environmental, Social and Governance. Negative (exclusionary) screening avoids sectors/companies deemed harmful (e.g. tobacco, weapons). Positive/best-in-class screening actively selects companies with the strongest ESG performance within or across sectors, rather than simply excluding the worst.

24. What is 'impact investing' and how does it differ from broad ESG integration?

    Impact investing aims to generate a measurable, beneficial social or environmental outcome alongside a financial return, with intentionality and measurement of that impact. Broad ESG integration merely incorporates ESG risk factors into mainstream financial analysis without necessarily targeting a specific positive outcome.

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