ACCA Pakistan Strategic Professional Options Flashcards

24 sample cards from the Strategic Professional Options deck

Sampled from the end of the deck, so these are different cards from the ones shown on the syllabus page.

1. What are the characteristics of a Transaction Processing System (TPS) versus a Management Information System (MIS)?

   A TPS records and processes routine day-to-day operational transactions (e.g. sales, payroll) producing detailed records. An MIS aggregates TPS data into summarised, structured reports to support tactical management decisions and monitoring.

2. What is the difference between a Decision Support System (DSS) and an Executive Information System (EIS)?

   A DSS uses models and 'what-if' analysis to support semi-structured/unstructured decisions by managers. An EIS provides senior executives with summarised internal and external strategic information, with drill-down capability and a user-friendly interface for strategic decision-making.

3. What are the key features of Lean Information Systems / Big Data, and the '3 Vs' of Big Data?

   Big Data is characterised by the 3 Vs: Volume (vast quantities), Velocity (high speed of generation/processing), and Variety (structured and unstructured forms). It is analysed (data analytics) to reveal patterns supporting performance management and strategic decisions.

4. What is the badges of trade test used to determine whether an activity constitutes trading for tax purposes?

   Factors indicating trading include: subject matter, length of ownership, frequency of transactions, supplementary work/improvements, reason/circumstances of sale, and profit-seeking motive. The more present, the more likely it is a trade taxed as trading income rather than capital.

5. How is taxable trading profit adjusted from accounting profit (proforma)?

   Start with net accounting profit, add back disallowable expenditure (e.g. depreciation, entertaining, capital items, non-trade items), deduct non-trading/exempt income and allowable items not in accounts (e.g. capital allowances), to arrive at the tax-adjusted trading profit.

6. What is the distinction between tax avoidance and tax evasion?

   Tax avoidance is the legal arrangement of affairs to minimise tax liability within the law. Tax evasion is the illegal reduction of tax by deliberate misrepresentation, concealment or fraud (e.g. omitting income, overstating expenses). Evasion is a criminal offence.

7. What is a group for capital gains and group relief purposes, and the key ownership thresholds?

   For group relief of losses, a 75% group exists where one company owns at least 75% of another (and 75% effective interest). For chargeable gains, a 75% gains group allows assets to be transferred between members at no gain/no loss. Thresholds focus on 75% ownership of ordinary share capital.

8. What is the treatment of a chargeable gain when a no gain/no loss transfer occurs within a gains group?

   Assets transferred between members of a 75% gains group are treated as transferred at no gain/no loss (cost plus indexation where applicable), deferring the gain. The gain crystallises when the asset is sold outside the group or the company leaves the group within a set period (degrouping charge).

9. How are pension contributions relieved for an individual taxpayer, and what limits apply?

   Contributions receive tax relief up to the higher of a basic amount or 100% of relevant earnings, subject to the annual allowance (with carry-forward of unused allowance from prior years). Contributions above the annual allowance trigger an annual allowance charge.

10. What is the difference in tax treatment between an employee (employment income) and a self-employed person (trading income)?

    Employees are taxed on employment income with tax deducted at source (PAYE), have stricter rules on deductible expenses ('wholly, exclusively and necessarily'), and pay employee NIC. The self-employed are taxed on trading profits, can deduct expenses 'wholly and exclusively', pay tax in instalments, and pay different (usually lower) NIC.

11. How is the taxation of an unincorporated business compared with incorporation as a company (key tax planning consideration)?

    A sole trader pays income tax and NIC on all profits as earned. A company pays corporation tax on profits; the owner extracts funds via salary (income tax + NIC) and/or dividends (taxed at dividend rates, no NIC). Incorporation can defer/reduce tax through profit retention and dividend extraction, but adds administration.

12. What is double taxation relief (DTR) and how is the amount of relief calculated?

    DTR relieves the same income being taxed in two countries. Relief is given as the LOWER of the overseas tax suffered and the home-country tax attributable to that overseas income. It may be given by exemption, credit, or deduction method, often governed by double tax treaties.

13. What determines a company's residence for tax purposes in international taxation?

    A company is generally tax resident where it is incorporated and/or where its central management and control (board-level strategic decision-making) is exercised. Residence determines whether worldwide profits or only domestically-sourced profits are taxable.

14. What is transfer pricing in an international tax context and the arm's length principle?

    It is the pricing of transactions between connected/group entities across borders. Tax rules require these to be set at arm's length (the price unconnected parties would charge) to prevent profit-shifting to low-tax jurisdictions. Tax authorities can adjust non-arm's-length prices.

15. What is a permanent establishment (PE) and why does it matter for international taxation?

    A PE is a fixed place of business (e.g. branch, office, factory) or a dependent agent through which a non-resident carries on business in another country. Its presence gives the host country the right to tax the business profits attributable to that PE, unlike a mere subsidiary or trading 'with' a country.

16. What are the five fundamental ethical principles of the ACCA / IESBA Code of Ethics?

    (1) Integrity, (2) Objectivity, (3) Professional competence and due care, (4) Confidentiality, and (5) Professional behaviour. These govern all professional accountants, supported by a conceptual framework of threats and safeguards.

17. What are the five categories of threats to auditor independence under the Code of Ethics?

    (1) Self-interest, (2) Self-review, (3) Advocacy, (4) Familiarity, and (5) Intimidation threats. Each must be evaluated against acceptable levels and addressed through safeguards or by declining/withdrawing from the engagement.

18. What are the elements of a system of quality management under ISQM 1 (replacing ISQC 1)?

    (1) Governance and leadership, (2) The firm's risk assessment process, (3) Relevant ethical requirements, (4) Acceptance and continuance of clients/engagements, (5) Engagement performance, (6) Resources, (7) Information and communication, and (8) The monitoring and remediation process.

19. What are the elements (basic structure) of an unmodified auditor's report under ISA 700?

    Title; addressee; opinion; basis for opinion; going concern (if relevant); key audit matters (for listed entities, ISA 701); responsibilities of management and those charged with governance; auditor's responsibilities; other reporting responsibilities; signature; address; and date.

20. What are the three types of modified audit opinion and when is each used?

    (1) Qualified ('except for') - misstatement or inability to obtain evidence is material but not pervasive; (2) Adverse - misstatement is material AND pervasive (financial statements do not give a true and fair view); (3) Disclaimer - inability to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence that is material AND pervasive.

21. What is the audit risk model and its components?

    Audit Risk = Inherent Risk x Control Risk x Detection Risk. Inherent and control risks (the 'risk of material misstatement') exist in the entity; detection risk is controlled by the auditor through the nature, timing and extent of procedures to reduce overall audit risk to an acceptable level.

22. What is the difference between a review engagement (ISRE 2400) and an audit, in terms of assurance provided?

    An audit provides reasonable (high but not absolute) assurance expressed positively. A review engagement provides limited assurance expressed negatively ('nothing has come to our attention'), using mainly enquiry and analytical procedures rather than the full range of audit tests.

23. What procedures should an auditor perform regarding going concern under ISA 570?

    Evaluate management's assessment, review cash flow forecasts and assumptions, analyse post-year-end events, consider mitigating factors and management plans, obtain written representations, and conclude whether a material uncertainty exists - then determine the impact on the audit report (e.g. material uncertainty paragraph or modified opinion).

24. What is the auditor's responsibility for subsequent events under ISA 560?

    Auditors must perform procedures up to the date of the audit report to identify events requiring adjustment or disclosure. Between the report date and issue of the financial statements, they have no obligation to perform procedures but must act if they become aware of material facts; after issue, they respond only if facts come to light that existed at the report date.

What this deck covers

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