FMGE Microbiology Syllabus

Microbiology syllabus — full chapter and topic list

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics. This is the whole examinable outline for Microbiology in FMGE, not a summary of it.

1. 1

   General Microbiology

   5 topics

   • Introduction to Microbiology
     • Historical perspective
     • Scope and significance of microbiology
   • Microbial Classification
     • Bacteria
     • Viruses
     • Fungi
     • Protozoa
     • Helminths
   • Microbial Structure
     • Cell morphology
     • Structure
     • Function
   • Microbial Growth and Nutrition
     • Growth requirements
     • Culture media
     • Methods of microbial cultivation
   • Sterilization and Disinfection
     • Physical methods of microbial control
     • Chemical methods of microbial control
2. 2

   Bacteriology

   6 topics

   • Bacterial morphology
     • Shapes
     • Arrangements
     • Staining characteristics
   • Bacterial genetics
     • Plasmids
     • Transposons
     • Bacterial conjugation
     • Transformation
     • Transduction
   • Bacterial metabolism
     • Aerobic and anaerobic respiration
     • Fermentation
     • Metabolic pathways
   • Bacterial pathogenesis
     • Virulence factors
     • Mechanisms of pathogenicity
     • Host defense mechanisms
   • Clinical microbiology
     • Laboratory diagnosis of bacterial infections
     • Culture techniques
     • Antibiotic susceptibility testing
   • Important bacterial pathogens
     • Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria causing respiratory infections
     • Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria causing gastrointestinal infections
     • Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria causing urinary infections
     • Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria causing other infections
3. 3

   Viral structure

   1 topic

   • Classification, morphology, and composition of viruses
4. 4

   Fungal morphology

   1 topic

   • Yeasts, molds, and dimorphic fungi
5. 5

   Parasite classification

   1 topic

   • Protozoa and helminths
6. 6

   Immune system components

   1 topic

   • Innate immunity and adaptive immunity

Microbiology flashcards for FMGE

24 of 50 cards from the Microbiology deck — real questions with worked answers.

1. In Gram staining, what gives gram-positive bacteria their purple color, and why do gram-negative bacteria appear pink/red?

   Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet-iodine complex after alcohol decolorization (purple). Gram-negatives have thin peptidoglycan and an outer membrane; alcohol washes out the complex, so they take up the safranin counterstain (pink/red).

2. What stain is used to demonstrate acid-fast bacilli, and what makes mycobacteria acid-fast?

   The Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain. The high mycolic acid content in the cell wall resists decolorization by acid-alcohol, so the bacilli retain carbol fuchsin and appear red against a blue (methylene blue) background.

3. Name the special stains used for bacterial capsules, spores, and flagella.

   Capsule: India ink/negative stain or Maneval's stain. Spores: Schaeffer-Fulton (malachite green) stain. Flagella: Leifson's stain (mordant deposits dye to thicken flagella).

4. Differentiate sterilization from disinfection.

   Sterilization is the complete destruction or removal of ALL microorganisms including bacterial spores. Disinfection is the destruction of pathogenic (vegetative) organisms but not necessarily resistant spores, usually applied to inanimate surfaces.

5. What are the standard conditions (temperature, pressure, time) for autoclave sterilization?

   121°C at 15 psi (1.05 kg/cm²) for 15-20 minutes (moist heat / saturated steam under pressure). Kills spores by denaturing proteins.

6. Which biological indicator (spore) is used to test autoclave efficacy, and which tests hot air oven efficacy?

   Autoclave: spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus (formerly Bacillus stearothermophilus). Hot air oven: spores of Clostridium tetani or Bacillus subtilis var. niger.

7. State the temperature and time for hot air oven (dry heat) sterilization.

   160°C for 1-2 hours (commonly 160°C for 1 hour). Used for glassware, powders, oils, and metal instruments. Acts by oxidation.

8. What is the classification of disinfectants by Spaulding based on risk of infection?

   Critical items (enter sterile tissue) need sterilization; Semi-critical items (contact mucous membranes) need high-level disinfection; Non-critical items (contact intact skin) need low/intermediate-level disinfection.

9. Give two examples each of culture media classified as enriched, selective, and differential.

   Enriched: blood agar, chocolate agar. Selective: MacConkey agar (gram-negatives), TCBS (Vibrio), Lowenstein-Jensen (mycobacteria). Differential: MacConkey (lactose fermentation), blood agar (hemolysis).

10. What are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve?

    Lag phase (adaptation, no division), Log/exponential phase (maximal division), Stationary phase (growth = death, nutrient depletion), and Decline/death phase (death exceeds growth).

11. On MacConkey agar, how do lactose fermenters appear versus non-fermenters?

    Lactose fermenters (e.g., E. coli, Klebsiella) produce acid and form pink/red colonies. Non-lactose fermenters (e.g., Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus) appear pale/colorless.

12. What selective medium is used to culture Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and how long does it take to grow?

    Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium (egg-based, malachite green selective). M. tuberculosis grows slowly, taking 2-8 weeks (rough, tough, buff colonies).

13. List the components of the innate immune system.

    Physical/chemical barriers (skin, mucosa, lysozyme), phagocytes (neutrophils, macrophages), NK cells, dendritic cells, the complement system, and inflammatory cytokines. It is non-specific and lacks memory.

14. How does adaptive immunity differ from innate immunity?

    Adaptive immunity is antigen-specific, has immunological memory, takes days to develop, and is mediated by T and B lymphocytes (cell-mediated and humoral). Innate is non-specific, immediate, and has no memory.

15. What are the five classes of immunoglobulins and the key role of each?

    IgG (most abundant, crosses placenta, secondary response); IgA (mucosal/secretory immunity); IgM (largest, pentamer, first in primary response); IgE (allergy, parasites); IgD (B-cell receptor, function uncertain).

16. Which immunoglobulin appears first in a primary immune response, and which predominates in the secondary response?

    IgM appears first in the primary response (recent infection marker). IgG predominates in the secondary (anamnestic) response and is the main antibody on re-exposure.

17. Distinguish active immunity from passive immunity with examples.

    Active: the host produces its own antibodies (vaccines, natural infection) — slow onset, long-lasting, has memory. Passive: ready-made antibodies are transferred (maternal IgG, antisera, immunoglobulins) — immediate, short-lived, no memory.

18. Classify vaccines into live attenuated, killed (inactivated), toxoid, and subunit with one example each.

    Live attenuated: BCG, MMR, OPV. Killed: IPV, rabies, cholera. Toxoid: tetanus, diphtheria. Subunit/conjugate: Hepatitis B (recombinant), Hib, pneumococcal.

19. Name the four classical types of hypersensitivity reactions (Gell and Coombs).

    Type I: immediate/IgE-mediated (anaphylaxis, allergy). Type II: antibody-mediated cytotoxic (hemolytic anemia). Type III: immune complex (serum sickness, SLE). Type IV: delayed, cell-mediated/T-cell (tuberculin reaction, contact dermatitis).

20. Which gram-positive cocci are catalase-positive versus catalase-negative, and what does this distinguish?

    Catalase-positive: Staphylococci. Catalase-negative: Streptococci and Enterococci. The catalase test distinguishes staphylococci from streptococci.

21. How is Staphylococcus aureus distinguished from coagulase-negative staphylococci?

    S. aureus is coagulase-positive (clots plasma via coagulase enzyme) and usually ferments mannitol (yellow on MSA). Coagulase-negative staphylococci (e.g., S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus) are coagulase-negative.

22. What is the basis of Lancefield grouping, and how are streptococci classified by hemolysis?

    Lancefield grouping is based on cell wall carbohydrate antigens (groups A-U). Hemolysis: alpha (partial, green - S. pneumoniae, viridans), beta (complete clearing - S. pyogenes group A), gamma (none - enterococci).

23. How is Streptococcus pneumoniae differentiated from viridans streptococci (both alpha-hemolytic)?

    S. pneumoniae is optochin-sensitive and bile-soluble; viridans streptococci are optochin-resistant and bile-insoluble. S. pneumoniae shows lancet-shaped diplococci with a capsule.

24. What are the key spore-forming gram-positive bacilli and a disease caused by each?

    Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Clostridium tetani (tetanus), Clostridium botulinum (botulism), Clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene), Clostridium difficile (pseudomembranous colitis).

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