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Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) Syllabus
The Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) syllabus for Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) in full: 4 chapters, 13 topics and 35 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) flashcards with answers.
Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Substantive Criminal Law
4 topics- General principles of liability
- Actus reus and mens rea
- Causation
- Strict liability
- Offences against the person
- Assault and battery
- Offences under the Offences Against the Person Act 1861
- Homicide: murder and manslaughter
- Property offences
- Theft and robbery
- Burglary
- Fraud and criminal damage
- Inchoate offences, parties and defences
- Attempts and conspiracy
- Accessorial liability
- Defences: self-defence, intoxication, duress, insanity
- General principles of liability
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Police Station Procedure and Investigation
3 topics- Powers of investigation
- Stop, search and arrest under PACE 1984
- Detention time limits and reviews
- Searches of premises and seizure
- Rights of the suspect
- Right to legal advice and the appropriate adult
- Interviews and the PACE Codes of Practice
- Identification procedures
- Advising at the police station
- The decision whether to answer questions
- Adverse inferences from silence
- Powers of investigation
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Pre-Trial and Procedure in the Magistrates' and Crown Courts
3 topics- Bail and remand
- The right to bail and exceptions
- Bail conditions and appeals
- Classification of offences and allocation
- Summary, either-way and indictable offences
- Plea before venue and allocation procedure
- Sending for trial to the Crown Court
- Case management and disclosure
- Prosecution and defence disclosure obligations
- Plea and trial preparation hearings
- Bail and remand
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Trial, Evidence and Sentencing
3 topics- Rules of criminal evidence
- Burden and standard of proof
- Confessions and exclusion under ss 76 and 78 PACE
- Hearsay, character and visual identification
- Conduct of the trial
- Trial in the magistrates' court
- Trial on indictment and the role of the jury
- Sentencing and appeals
- Aims of sentencing and types of sentence
- Aggravating and mitigating factors
- Appeals from the magistrates' and Crown Courts
- Rules of criminal evidence
Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) flashcards โ 51 questions with answers
What two elements must the prosecution prove for criminal liability, and how do they relate?
Actus reus (the guilty act/conduct, circumstances or consequences) and mens rea (the guilty mind). Both must generally coincide in time (contemporaneity), and the actus reus must be caused by the defendant. Liability also requires the absence of a valid defence.
Distinguish direct intent, oblique (indirect) intent, and the Woollin test.
Direct intent: the defendant's aim or purpose is the result. Oblique intent: the result is a virtually certain consequence of the defendant's act and the defendant appreciated this. Under Woollin, the jury may FIND intention where death/GBH was a virtual certainty and the defendant realised that.
State the test for recklessness in criminal law (Cunningham/R v G).
Subjective recklessness: the defendant (1) was aware of a risk that the prohibited result or circumstance existed/would occur, and (2) in the circumstances known to him it was unreasonable to take that risk. The risk need only be foreseen, not foreseen as probable.
What are the rules of factual and legal causation?
Factual causation: the 'but for' test โ but for the defendant's act the result would not have occurred. Legal causation: the act must be an operating and substantial (more than minimal) cause, and there must be no novus actus interveniens (free, voluntary, informed third-party act; victim's wholly unreasonable act; or extraordinary natural event) breaking the chain.
What is the 'thin skull' (eggshell skull) rule?
The defendant must take the victim as he finds them. If the victim has a particular vulnerability (physical, e.g. haemophilia, or a religious belief such as refusing a blood transfusion) that makes the harm worse, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the harm and cannot argue it broke the chain of causation.
Define assault (common/technical assault) under s.39 Criminal Justice Act 1988.
Actus reus: any act causing the victim to apprehend immediate unlawful personal force. Mens rea: intention or recklessness as to causing that apprehension. No touching is required; words or even silence can amount to assault. It is a summary offence (max 6 months).
Define battery and its actus reus and mens rea.
Battery: the application of unlawful force to another person. Actus reus: infliction of unlawful force (even the slightest touch). Mens rea: intention or recklessness as to applying unlawful force. Summary offence under s.39 CJA 1988 (max 6 months).
State the elements of assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s.47 OAPA 1861).
Actus reus: an assault or battery that occasions (causes) actual bodily harm โ any hurt or injury interfering with health/comfort that is more than trivial (can include psychiatric harm). Mens rea: only the mens rea for the assault/battery โ NO need to foresee the ABH. Triable either way, max 5 years.
Contrast s.20 and s.18 OAPA 1861 (wounding/GBH), especially the mens rea.
s.20 (malicious wounding/inflicting GBH): mens rea = intention OR recklessness as to causing SOME harm. Max 5 years, triable either way. s.18 (wounding/causing GBH with intent): mens rea = intention to cause GBH (or intent to resist/prevent arrest with recklessness as to some harm). Max life, indictable only. A 'wound' requires a break in both layers of skin.
State the elements of theft under s.1 Theft Act 1968.
Dishonest (s.2) appropriation (s.3) of property (s.4) belonging to another (s.5) with the intention to permanently deprive (s.6). Actus reus: appropriation of property belonging to another. Mens rea: dishonesty and intention to permanently deprive. Max 7 years, triable either way.
What is the test for dishonesty (Ivey v Genting; Barton v Wright Hassall)?
(1) Ascertain the defendant's actual (subjective) knowledge or belief as to the facts; (2) then decide whether the conduct was dishonest by the (objective) standards of ordinary decent people. The defendant need not appreciate that what he did was dishonest by those standards. The old Ghosh second limb is no longer used.
List the three situations under s.2(1) Theft Act 1968 where a defendant is NOT dishonest.
A defendant is not dishonest if he appropriates property in the belief that: (a) he has a legal right to deprive the other of it; (b) he would have the other's consent if the other knew of the appropriation and circumstances; or (c) the person to whom the property belongs cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps. Note: willingness to pay does NOT prevent dishonesty (s.2(2)).
State the elements of robbery under s.8 Theft Act 1968.
A person is guilty of robbery if he steals (all elements of theft must be present) AND immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, he uses force on any person, or puts or seeks to put any person in fear of being then and there subjected to force. Indictable only, max life.
Distinguish burglary under s.9(1)(a) and s.9(1)(b) Theft Act 1968.
s.9(1)(a): entering a building (or part) as a trespasser WITH INTENT to steal, inflict GBH, or do unlawful damage โ the intent exists at entry. s.9(1)(b): having entered as a trespasser, the defendant steals/attempts to steal or inflicts/attempts to inflict GBH โ committed once inside. Both require entry as a trespasser; max 14 years (dwelling) or 10 years.
State the elements of fraud by false representation (s.2 Fraud Act 2006).
The defendant (1) dishonestly (2) makes a false representation (express or implied, as to fact or law, including state of mind), (3) knowing it is or might be untrue or misleading, (4) with intent to make a gain for himself/another or cause loss/risk of loss to another. It is a conduct offence โ no gain or loss need actually result. Max 10 years.
State the basic offence of criminal damage (s.1(1) Criminal Damage Act 1971).
Actus reus: destroying or damaging property belonging to another without lawful excuse. Mens rea: intention or recklessness as to the destruction/damage of property belonging to another. Lawful excuses include belief in consent or protecting other property (s.5). Max 10 years (or summary if value low).
What is the maximum sentence for aggravated criminal damage (s.1(2) CDA 1971) and what extra element is required?
Max life imprisonment. It requires the basic offence plus that the defendant intended OR was reckless as to endangering the life of another by the destruction/damage. The property damaged can belong to the defendant himself, and life need not actually be endangered.
State the actus reus and mens rea of an attempt under s.1 Criminal Attempts Act 1981.
Actus reus: doing an act that is 'more than merely preparatory' to the commission of the offence. Mens rea: intention to commit the full offence (intention to bring about the consequences; for attempted murder, intention to kill โ intention to cause GBH is not enough). Attempting the impossible is still an offence.
Compare conspiracy, the two main forms of secondary participation, and accessorial liability under s.8 Accessories and Abettors Act 1861.
Statutory conspiracy (s.1 Criminal Law Act 1977): an agreement between two or more to pursue a course of conduct that will necessarily amount to an offence. A secondary party 'aids, abets, counsels or procures' the principal's offence (s.8 AAA 1861) โ needs an act of assistance/encouragement plus intention to assist/encourage and knowledge of the essential matters. The accessory is tried and punished as a principal.
State the test for self-defence / defence of another (and s.76 Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008).
Two questions: (1) Was the use of force NECESSARY? Judged on the facts as the defendant honestly believed them to be (even if mistaken, unless mistake due to voluntary intoxication). (2) Was the force REASONABLE/PROPORTIONATE in those circumstances? Judged objectively. In householder cases, force is unreasonable only if grossly disproportionate.
Show the other 31 Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) flashcards
State the elements of the defence of loss of control (ss.54-55 Coroners and Justice Act 2009).
A partial defence to murder reducing it to manslaughter where: (1) the killing resulted from a loss of self-control; (2) caused by a qualifying trigger (fear of serious violence and/or things said/done amounting to circumstances of an extremely grave character giving a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged โ sexual infidelity is excluded); and (3) a person of the defendant's sex and age with normal tolerance/self-restraint might have reacted similarly. The loss need not be sudden.
State the elements of diminished responsibility (s.2 Homicide Act 1957 as amended).
A partial defence to murder where the defendant had an abnormality of mental functioning that (1) arose from a recognised medical condition, (2) substantially impaired his ability to understand his conduct, form rational judgment, or exercise self-control, and (3) provides an explanation for the killing. The burden is on the defence on the balance of probabilities. Reduces murder to manslaughter.
When can the defence of intoxication be raised, and the basic/specific intent distinction (DPP v Majewski)?
Voluntary intoxication can negate mens rea only for SPECIFIC intent offences (e.g. murder, s.18, theft) โ it may reduce liability to a basic intent fallback. It is NO defence to BASIC intent offences (e.g. assault, battery, s.20, criminal damage) because becoming intoxicated is itself reckless. Involuntary intoxication is a defence if it negated mens rea.
What are PACE Code G powers of arrest without warrant under s.24 PACE 1984?
A constable may arrest anyone who is about to commit/is committing/has committed an offence, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of these. The arrest must also be NECESSARY on one of the s.24(5) grounds (the mnemonic COP PLAN: ascertain Name/Address, prevent physical injury, prevent loss/damage to property, prevent indecency/obstruction of highway, protect a child/vulnerable person, allow prompt and effective investigation, prevent disappearance).
What is the stop and search power under s.1 PACE 1984 and what does the constable need?
A constable may stop and search a person/vehicle in a public place for stolen or prohibited articles (e.g. offensive weapons, items for theft/burglary). He must have REASONABLE GROUNDS for suspicion. Before searching he must give (under s.2) GOWISELY: Grounds, Object, Warrant card, Identity, Station, Entitlement to a record, Legal power, and 'You are detained for a search'.
State the PACE detention time limits before charge for a standard (non-indictable-terrorism) suspect.
Initial maximum: 24 hours from the 'relevant time'. A superintendent may authorise extension to 36 hours for an indictable offence. A Magistrates' Court may issue warrants of further detention up to a maximum of 96 hours total. Detention must be reviewed by a review officer (inspector) at 6 hours then every 9 hours.
What are the conditions for searching premises without a warrant under ss.17, 18 and 32 PACE 1984?
s.17: entry to arrest or save life/limb. s.18: search of premises occupied/controlled by a person under arrest for an indictable offence, for evidence of that or a connected offence โ needs an inspector's written authority (or after charge). s.32: search of an arrested person and premises where they were when/immediately before arrest, for evidence or items to aid escape.
State the suspect's three principal rights on arrival at the police station (PACE & Codes).
(1) The right to free and independent legal advice (s.58 PACE); (2) the right to have someone informed of the arrest (s.56); and (3) the right to consult the PACE Codes of Practice. The custody officer must inform the suspect of these rights, both orally and in writing, and they are recorded on the custody record.
When can the right to legal advice (s.58) be delayed, and for how long?
Only where the suspect is detained for an INDICTABLE offence and a senior officer (superintendent or above) has reasonable grounds to believe exercising it would lead to interference with evidence, harm to others, alerting other suspects, or hindering recovery of property. Maximum delay is 36 hours, and the right to consult a solicitor itself (not just a specific solicitor) is rarely lawfully delayed in practice.
What is the caution and what 'adverse inferences' can be drawn under the CJPOA 1994?
Caution: 'You do not have to say anything. But it may harm your defence if you do not mention when questioned something which you later rely on in court. Anything you do say may be given in evidence.' Adverse inferences may be drawn under: s.34 (failure to mention facts later relied on), s.36 (failure to account for objects/marks/substances), s.37 (failure to account for presence at a scene). No inference under s.34 if the suspect had no legal advice.
What is the appropriate adult and when must one be present at the police station?
An appropriate adult must be present to safeguard the interests of a juvenile (under 18) or a vulnerable adult (e.g. with a mental disorder). Their role is to advise, observe whether the interview is conducted fairly, and facilitate communication. They are NOT a legal adviser and communications with them are not privileged. An interview generally cannot proceed without one (except urgent cases under Annex C).
As a legal adviser, what are the three broad options when advising a suspect on whether to answer questions in interview?
(1) Answer questions (give a full account); (2) Go 'no comment' (remain silent); or (3) Provide a prepared written statement and then make no comment. The choice depends on the strength/disclosure of police evidence, the suspect's account and reliability, fitness for interview, and the risk of adverse inferences under s.34 CJPOA 1994.
What is the presumption regarding bail, and where is it found?
Under s.4 Bail Act 1976 there is a general presumption (right) to bail for defendants accused or convicted of an offence (subject to exceptions). This means the court must grant bail unless one of the statutory grounds/exceptions for refusing bail applies.
What are the main grounds for refusing bail for an indictable imprisonable offence?
Bail may be refused where there are substantial grounds for believing the defendant would, if released: (a) fail to surrender to custody; (b) commit further offences while on bail; or (c) interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct justice. Factors considered include the nature/seriousness of the offence, character, antecedents, community ties, and bail record.
What conditions can be attached to bail, and what happens on breach or failure to surrender?
Conditions (e.g. residence, curfew, reporting to a police station, surety, security, surrender of passport, non-contact) may be imposed where necessary to address bail risks. Failure to surrender (s.6 Bail Act 1976) is a separate offence; breaching a condition is not an offence but allows arrest under s.7 and may lead to remand in custody.
How are criminal offences classified for trial purposes, and how is each tried?
Three classes: (1) Summary-only offences (e.g. common assault, low-value criminal damage) โ tried only in the Magistrates' Court; (2) Either-way offences (e.g. theft, ABH, burglary) โ tried in either court following allocation; (3) Indictable-only offences (e.g. murder, robbery, s.18) โ must be sent to the Crown Court for trial.
Outline the plea before venue and allocation procedure for an either-way offence.
First the defendant indicates a plea (plea before venue). If GUILTY, the magistrates proceed to sentence or commit for sentence to the Crown Court. If NOT GUILTY (or no indication), the court conducts ALLOCATION (s.19 MCA 1980): it decides if its sentencing powers are adequate. If it accepts jurisdiction, the defendant may consent to summary trial or ELECT Crown Court trial by jury.
What sentencing limits guide the Magistrates' Court, and when may it commit for sentence?
The Magistrates' Court can impose up to 6 months' custody for a single either-way offence (12 months aggregate for two or more either-way offences). If, after summary trial/guilty plea, its powers are insufficient, it may commit the defendant to the Crown Court for sentence under s.14/s.18 Sentencing Act 2020.
What is the overriding objective of the Criminal Procedure Rules?
That criminal cases be dealt with JUSTLY โ which includes acquitting the innocent and convicting the guilty, dealing with the prosecution and defence fairly, respecting the rights of the defendant (including the presumption of innocence and Art 6 ECHR), dealing with the case efficiently and expeditiously, and dealing with it in ways proportionate to its seriousness, complexity and severity. Parties have a duty to assist the court in furthering it.
State the prosecution's duties of disclosure under the CPIA 1996.
Initial (formerly 'primary') disclosure (s.3): the prosecution must disclose unused material that might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the prosecution case or assisting the defence case. There is a CONTINUING duty to review and disclose (s.7A). Material is gathered and listed by the disclosure officer on schedules (used and unused).
What is a defence statement, when is it required, and what must it contain?
A defence statement is COMPULSORY in the Crown Court and voluntary in the Magistrates' Court (s.5/s.6 CPIA 1996). It must set out the nature of the defence, matters of fact in issue with the prosecution and why, points of law, and details of any alibi (with witness details). Faults (late, incomplete, inconsistent) may lead to adverse inferences. It can trigger an application for further disclosure (s.8).
Explain the burden and standard of proof in a criminal trial (the 'golden thread').
The legal (persuasive) burden is generally on the PROSECUTION (Woolmington v DPP โ the 'golden thread'), which must prove guilt BEYOND REASONABLE DOUBT (so that the tribunal is 'sure'). Where the defence bears a legal burden (e.g. insanity, diminished responsibility), the standard is the lower civil standard โ the BALANCE OF PROBABILITIES.
Define hearsay evidence and state the gateways for its admission (s.114 CJA 2003).
Hearsay is a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings that is relied on as evidence of the matter stated. It is admissible only if: (a) a statutory provision makes it admissible (e.g. s.116 witness unavailable, s.117 business documents); (b) a preserved common law rule applies; (c) all parties agree; or (d) the court is satisfied it is in the INTERESTS OF JUSTICE to admit it (the safety-valve).
What is bad character evidence and what are the gateways for the DEFENDANT's bad character (s.101 CJA 2003)?
Bad character = evidence of misconduct (commission of an offence or other reprehensible behaviour) other than that connected with the offence charged. The seven gateways (s.101(1)(a)-(g)): (a) all parties agree; (b) defendant adduces it; (c) important explanatory evidence; (d) relevant to an important matter between defendant and prosecution (e.g. propensity); (e) substantial probative value between co-defendants; (f) correcting a false impression; (g) defendant has attacked another's character.
What is the test for excluding confession evidence under s.76 PACE 1984?
A confession must be excluded if the prosecution cannot prove BEYOND REASONABLE DOUBT that it was NOT obtained: (a) by oppression (torture, inhuman/degrading treatment, use/threat of violence); or (b) in consequence of anything said or done likely to render any resulting confession unreliable. If raised, the court must hold a voir dire and the burden is on the prosecution.
Compare s.76 and s.78 PACE 1984 for excluding evidence.
s.76 applies ONLY to confessions; if oppression/unreliability is made out the court MUST exclude (mandatory), with the burden on the prosecution. s.78 is a general DISCRETION to exclude ANY prosecution evidence if its admission would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit it โ often used for breaches of PACE/Codes or improperly obtained evidence.
Outline the structure (order of events) of a criminal trial on a not guilty plea.
(1) Prosecution opening speech; (2) prosecution evidence (examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination of each witness); (3) possible submission of no case to answer (Galbraith test); (4) defence case (defendant may give evidence) and any defence witnesses; (5) closing speeches (prosecution then defence); (6) in the Crown Court, the judge's summing up and direction; (7) verdict; (8) sentence if convicted.
State the Galbraith test for a submission of no case to answer.
A submission of no case to answer succeeds where: (1) there is NO evidence that the defendant committed the offence; OR (2) the prosecution evidence, taken at its highest, is so tenuous/inconsistent that a properly directed jury (or bench) could not properly convict on it. If there is some evidence on which a reasonable tribunal could convict, the matter must be left to the jury/magistrates.
State the five purposes of sentencing for adults under s.57 Sentencing Act 2020.
(1) Punishment of offenders; (2) reduction of crime (including by deterrence); (3) reform and rehabilitation of offenders; (4) protection of the public; and (5) making reparation by offenders to those affected by their offences. The court must also follow relevant Sentencing Council guidelines unless contrary to the interests of justice.
What credit (sentence reduction) is given for a guilty plea, and what threshold tests apply to custody and community orders?
Maximum credit of one-third for a guilty plea at the first stage of proceedings, sliding to one-quarter after that and one-tenth at the door of the court. A CUSTODIAL sentence may only be imposed where the offence is so serious that neither a fine nor a community sentence can be justified; a COMMUNITY order requires the offence to be serious enough to warrant it.
Summarise the routes of appeal from the Magistrates' Court and from the Crown Court.
From the Magistrates': the defendant may appeal to the CROWN COURT against conviction and/or sentence (rehearing); either party may appeal by way of CASE STATED to the High Court (Divisional Court) on a point of law/jurisdiction, or seek judicial review. From the Crown Court (trial on indictment): appeal lies to the COURT OF APPEAL (Criminal Division) against conviction (if 'unsafe') or sentence, usually with leave; a further appeal lies to the Supreme Court on a point of law of general public importance.
Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) FAQ
What is in the Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) syllabus?
Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) is split into 4 chapters: Substantive Criminal Law, Police Station Procedure and Investigation, Pre-Trial and Procedure in the Magistrates' and Crown Courts and Trial, Evidence and Sentencing. Together they contain 13 topics and 35 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2)?
4 chapters, containing 13 topics and 35 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Substantive Criminal Law, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2)?
Yes โ a 51-card Criminal Law and Practice (FLK2) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.