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Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1) Syllabus

The Contract and Tort (FLK1) syllabus for Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) in full: 4 chapters, 13 topics and 36 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 49 Contract and Tort (FLK1) flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
13Topics
36Sub-topics
49Flashcards

Contract and Tort (FLK1) syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Formation and Content of Contracts

    3 topics
    • Essential elements of a contract
      • Offer and acceptance
      • Consideration and promissory estoppel
      • Intention to create legal relations
      • Certainty of terms
    • Terms of the contract
      • Express terms and incorporation
      • Implied terms (common law and statute)
      • Conditions, warranties and innominate terms
    • Exemption clauses and consumer protection
      • Incorporation and construction of exclusion clauses
      • Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977
      • Consumer Rights Act 2015
  2. Vitiating Factors and Discharge

    3 topics
    • Factors affecting validity
      • Misrepresentation and remedies
      • Mistake
      • Duress and undue influence
      • Illegality and public policy
    • Discharge of contract
      • Performance and breach
      • Frustration
      • Agreement and variation
    • Third party rights
      • Privity of contract
      • Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999
  3. Contractual Remedies

    3 topics
    • Damages
      • Expectation and reliance loss
      • Remoteness and causation
      • Mitigation and the duty to mitigate
    • Equitable remedies
      • Specific performance and injunctions
      • Rescission
    • Restitution and unjust enrichment
      • Quantum meruit
      • Recovery of money paid
  4. Tort: Negligence and Liability

    4 topics
    • The tort of negligence
      • Duty of care and the Caparo test
      • Breach and the standard of care
      • Causation (factual and legal) and remoteness
    • Pure economic loss and psychiatric harm
      • Negligent misstatement (Hedley Byrne)
      • Primary and secondary victims
    • Employer's and occupier's liability
      • Vicarious liability
      • Occupiers' Liability Acts 1957 and 1984
    • Defences and remedies in tort
      • Contributory negligence and consent
      • Nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher
      • Damages and limitation in tort

Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1) flashcards — 49 questions with answers

  1. What are the essential elements required to form a legally binding contract?

    Offer, acceptance, consideration, and intention to create legal relations. (Capacity and certainty of terms are also required for validity.)

  2. What is the difference between an offer and an invitation to treat?

    An offer is a definite expression of willingness to be bound on stated terms upon acceptance. An invitation to treat (e.g. goods on a shelf, adverts, auctions) merely invites others to make offers and cannot itself be accepted to form a contract (Pharmaceutical Society v Boots; Partridge v Crittenden).

  3. State the rule on acceptance by post (the postal rule) and when it applies.

    Acceptance takes effect when the letter is posted, not when received (Adams v Lindsell), provided post is a reasonable means of acceptance and the letter is properly addressed and stamped. It does not apply to instantaneous communications or where excluded by the offeror.

  4. What is consideration, and what are the two key rules about its sufficiency?

    Consideration is something of value given in exchange for a promise (a benefit to the promisor or detriment to the promisee). Rules: (1) consideration must be sufficient (real/of some value) but need not be adequate (equal in value); (2) past consideration is not good consideration (Re McArdle).

  5. Explain the rule in Pinnel's Case and the doctrine of promissory estoppel.

    Part payment of a debt is not good consideration to discharge the whole debt (Pinnel's Case; Foakes v Beer). Promissory estoppel may prevent a creditor going back on a promise to accept less where the debtor relied on it and it would be inequitable to resile (Central London Property v High Trees). It is 'a shield, not a sword.'

  6. When is intention to create legal relations presumed and how is the presumption rebutted?

    In commercial/business agreements intention is presumed present (rebuttable by clear words e.g. 'binding in honour only'). In social/domestic agreements intention is presumed absent (rebuttable by evidence the parties intended legal consequences) (Balfour v Balrour; Merritt v Merritt).

  7. What is the distinction between a contractual term and a representation?

    A term is a statement that forms part of the contract; breach gives a contractual remedy. A representation is a statement inducing the contract but not part of it; its falsity gives a remedy in misrepresentation, not breach. Factors: importance of statement, timing, special knowledge/skill, and whether reduced to writing.

  8. Compare conditions, warranties and innominate terms and the remedies for breach of each.

    Condition: a major term going to the root of the contract; breach allows termination plus damages. Warranty: a minor term; breach allows damages only. Innominate term: classified by the seriousness of the actual consequences of breach (Hong Kong Fir) — termination only if the breach deprives the innocent party of substantially the whole benefit.

  9. What are the requirements for a term to be implied into a contract by fact (the business efficacy / officious bystander tests)?

    Business efficacy test: the term is necessary to make the contract work (The Moorcock). Officious bystander test: the term is so obvious it goes without saying (Shirlaw v Southern Foundries). The term must be reasonable, capable of clear expression, not contradict an express term, and reflect the parties' presumed intention.

  10. What are the three requirements for an exemption (exclusion/limitation) clause to be valid at common law?

    (1) Incorporation — by signature, reasonable notice given before/at contract, or consistent course of dealing; (2) Construction — the clause, on its wording, covers the breach that occurred (contra proferentem against the party relying on it); (3) It must not be defeated by statute (UCTA 1977 / CRA 2015).

  11. Under UCTA 1977, how is liability for negligence treated by exemption clauses (business-to-business)?

    Liability for death or personal injury caused by negligence cannot be excluded or restricted at all (s.2(1)). Liability for other loss or damage caused by negligence can only be excluded/restricted insofar as the clause satisfies the requirement of reasonableness (s.2(2)).

  12. Under the Consumer Rights Act 2015, what is the test for an unfair term in a consumer contract, and which terms cannot be excluded?

    A term is unfair if, contrary to good faith, it causes a significant imbalance in the parties' rights and obligations to the detriment of the consumer (s.62). Unfair terms are not binding. Terms excluding the statutory rights as to goods (satisfactory quality, fit for purpose, as described) and services cannot be excluded; the core 'transparency and prominence' requirement also applies.

  13. List the four vitiating factors that may affect the validity of a contract.

    Misrepresentation, mistake, duress, and undue influence (illegality is also a factor that may render a contract void/unenforceable).

  14. Define misrepresentation and state its three required elements.

    A misrepresentation is a false statement of fact (or law) made by one party that induces the other to enter the contract. Elements: (1) an unambiguous false statement of existing fact/law (not mere opinion or future intention); (2) addressed to the misled party; (3) which induced the contract (the claimant relied on it).

  15. Compare fraudulent, negligent and innocent misrepresentation and the remedies for each.

    Fraudulent (Derry v Peek — knowingly/recklessly false): rescission + damages in the tort of deceit. Negligent (Misrepresentation Act 1967 s.2(1) — maker cannot prove reasonable belief): rescission + damages (fiction of fraud measure). Innocent (reasonable grounds to believe true): rescission, or damages in lieu under s.2(2) at the court's discretion.

  16. What are the bars to rescission for misrepresentation?

    Affirmation of the contract; lapse of time; impossibility of restitutio in integrum (substantial restoration not possible); and where a bona fide third party has acquired rights in the subject matter for value.

  17. Distinguish common mistake, mutual mistake and unilateral mistake.

    Common mistake: both parties share the same mistaken belief (e.g. res extincta — subject matter doesn't exist). Mutual mistake: parties are at cross-purposes, each mistaken about the other's intention. Unilateral mistake: only one party is mistaken and the other knows (often as to identity or terms). A fundamental operative mistake renders the contract void.

  18. Define duress and the modern test for economic duress.

    Duress is illegitimate pressure that vitiates consent. Economic duress requires: (1) illegitimate pressure (e.g. a threatened breach of contract); (2) which was a significant cause inducing the claimant to enter the contract; and (3) the claimant had no practical/reasonable alternative but to submit. The contract is voidable.

  19. Distinguish actual undue influence from presumed undue influence (Class 2).

    Actual undue influence: the claimant proves overt acts of improper pressure or coercion. Presumed undue influence: arises from a relationship of trust and confidence plus a transaction calling for explanation; the burden then shifts to the dominant party to rebut (e.g. by showing independent legal advice) (Royal Bank of Scotland v Etridge).

  20. What are the four ways a contract can be discharged?

    By performance, by agreement, by frustration, and by breach.

Show the other 29 Contract and Tort (FLK1) flashcards
  1. State the general rule on discharge by performance and its main exceptions.

    General rule: performance must be complete and exact to discharge obligations (Cutter v Powell). Exceptions allowing partial recovery: substantial performance, divisible (severable) obligations, wrongful prevention of performance by the other party, acceptance of partial performance, and tender of performance that is rejected.

  2. What is the doctrine of frustration and what is its effect?

    Frustration discharges a contract automatically where, after formation, an unforeseen event (not the fault of either party) makes performance impossible, illegal, or radically different from what was agreed (Taylor v Caldwell; Davis Contractors). It is narrow — not triggered by mere hardship, increased expense, or events foreseen/provided for.

  3. How does the Law Reform (Frustrated Contracts) Act 1943 allocate loss after frustration?

    Money paid before frustration is recoverable and sums payable cease to be payable (s.1(2)), subject to the court allowing a payee to retain/recover expenses incurred. A party who obtained a valuable non-money benefit before frustration may be ordered to pay a just sum for it (s.1(3)).

  4. What is an anticipatory breach and what options does the innocent party have?

    An anticipatory breach occurs where one party indicates, before performance is due, that it will not perform (renunciation) or disables itself. The innocent party may either (1) accept the breach, terminate immediately and sue for damages, or (2) affirm and wait for the time of performance (keeping the contract alive for both) (Hochster v De La Tour; White & Carter v McGregor).

  5. State the doctrine of privity of contract and its general consequence.

    Privity means only the parties to a contract can sue or be sued on it; a third party cannot acquire rights or have obligations imposed under a contract to which they are not a party (Tweddle v Atkinson; Dunlop v Selfridge).

  6. Under the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, when can a third party enforce a term of a contract?

    A third party may enforce a term if either (a) the contract expressly provides that they may, or (b) the term purports to confer a benefit on them (unless on a proper construction the parties did not intend it to be enforceable). The third party must be expressly identified by name, class, or description (s.1).

  7. What is the aim of contract damages, and how is the expectation measure defined?

    The aim is to put the claimant in the position they would have been in had the contract been properly performed (Robinson v Harman). The expectation (loss of bargain) measure compensates for the loss of the expected benefit, calculated as the difference in value or the cost of cure.

  8. State the two limbs of the remoteness rule in Hadley v Baxendale.

    Damages are recoverable for losses that (1) arise naturally, in the usual course of things, from the breach; or (2) may reasonably be supposed to have been in the contemplation of both parties at the time of contracting as the probable result of breach (i.e. losses from special circumstances known to the defendant).

  9. What is the duty to mitigate in contract, and what are its three components?

    The innocent party cannot recover for losses they could have avoided by reasonable steps. Components: (1) the claimant must take reasonable steps to minimise loss; (2) cannot recover for avoidable loss; (3) can recover reasonable costs incurred in attempting to mitigate. The burden of proving failure to mitigate lies on the defendant.

  10. Distinguish a liquidated damages clause from a penalty clause.

    A liquidated damages clause is a genuine pre-estimate of loss and is enforceable. A penalty clause is unenforceable. Modern test (Cavendish v Makdessi): a clause is penal if it imposes a detriment on the breaching party out of all proportion to the innocent party's legitimate interest in enforcing the primary obligation.

  11. How are damages for non-pecuniary loss (e.g. distress) treated in contract?

    Generally not recoverable in contract. Exception: where the very object of the contract was to provide pleasure, relaxation, or peace of mind (e.g. a holiday — Jarvis v Swans Tours; Farley v Skinner), or to prevent distress, modest damages for disappointment may be awarded.

  12. What is the difference between damages and equitable remedies, and what governs the grant of the latter?

    Damages are a common law remedy available as of right for breach. Equitable remedies (specific performance, injunction, rescission, rectification) are discretionary, granted only where damages are inadequate, and subject to equitable bars (delay/laches, clean hands, hardship, third-party rights).

  13. What is specific performance and when will it generally be refused?

    Specific performance is an equitable order compelling a party to perform their contractual obligations, granted where damages are inadequate (e.g. sale of land/unique goods). Generally refused for: contracts of personal service, contracts requiring constant supervision, where damages are adequate, want of mutuality, or where it would cause undue hardship.

  14. Distinguish prohibitory and mandatory injunctions, and state when an injunction may enforce a contract.

    A prohibitory injunction restrains a party from breaching a negative obligation (e.g. a restraint clause); a mandatory injunction compels a positive act. An injunction can indirectly enforce a personal-service contract by restraining a negative promise, but not if it effectively compels performance or leaves the defendant with no realistic alternative but to perform (Warner Bros v Nelson).

  15. Define restitution and unjust enrichment, and state the four-stage analysis.

    Restitution reverses unjust enrichment — it strips a gain rather than compensating a loss. The four questions: (1) Was the defendant enriched? (2) Was the enrichment at the claimant's expense? (3) Was the enrichment unjust (an 'unjust factor' e.g. mistake, failure of consideration, duress)? (4) Are there any defences (e.g. change of position)?

  16. What is a quantum meruit claim and when does it arise?

    Quantum meruit ('as much as he has earned') is a restitutionary award of a reasonable sum for services rendered. It arises where work is done but no price was agreed, where a contract is unenforceable or void, or where work is requested and accepted outside a binding contract.

  17. State the three elements a claimant must prove to establish the tort of negligence.

    (1) The defendant owed the claimant a duty of care; (2) the defendant breached that duty (fell below the standard of a reasonable person); and (3) the breach caused the claimant's loss, which was not too remote (causation and remoteness of damage).

  18. State the Caparo three-stage test for establishing a novel duty of care.

    (1) Reasonable foreseeability of harm to the claimant; (2) a relationship of sufficient proximity between claimant and defendant; and (3) it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty (Caparo v Dickman). For established categories, the courts now reason incrementally by analogy rather than applying Caparo afresh (Robinson v CC West Yorkshire).

  19. How is the standard of care in negligence defined, and how is it modified for professionals and learners?

    The standard is that of the reasonable person doing the activity in question (objective; Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks). Professionals are judged by the standard of a reasonable member of that profession (Bolam — acting in accordance with a responsible body of opinion, subject to Bolitho logic). Learners/inexperienced defendants are held to the standard of the competent practitioner (Nettleship v Weston).

  20. What factors does the court weigh when deciding whether the standard of care was breached?

    The likelihood (probability) of harm; the seriousness of potential harm; the cost/practicability of precautions; and the social utility of the defendant's activity. The greater the risk and gravity of harm relative to the burden of precautions, the more likely a breach.

  21. State the 'but for' test for factual causation and the rule for remoteness of damage in tort.

    Factual causation: 'but for' the defendant's breach, would the harm have occurred? If the harm would have happened anyway, causation fails (Barnett v Chelsea Hospital). Remoteness (legal causation): the kind/type of damage must be reasonably foreseeable (The Wagon Mound No 1); the precise extent or manner need not be (egg-shell skull rule applies — take your victim as you find them).

  22. What is the general rule on recovery for pure economic loss in negligence?

    Pure economic loss (financial loss not flowing from physical injury to the claimant or their property) is generally not recoverable in the tort of negligence (Spartan Steel v Martin), for fear of indeterminate liability. It is distinct from consequential economic loss, which is recoverable.

  23. State the requirements for recovering pure economic loss caused by a negligent misstatement (Hedley Byrne liability).

    Recovery requires a 'special relationship' based on an assumption of responsibility by the defendant and reasonable reliance by the claimant: (1) the defendant possessed special skill/knowledge; (2) the defendant knew or ought to have known the claimant would rely on the statement; (3) the claimant reasonably relied on it; and (4) it was reasonable for the claimant to do so (Hedley Byrne v Heller).

  24. Distinguish a primary victim from a secondary victim in claims for psychiatric harm.

    A primary victim is within the zone of physical danger or reasonably believes they are; they can recover for psychiatric injury if physical injury was foreseeable (Page v Smith). A secondary victim witnesses harm to others and must satisfy additional control mechanisms; they need not be in physical danger themselves.

  25. State the Alcock control mechanisms a secondary victim must satisfy to recover for psychiatric harm.

    (1) A recognised psychiatric illness (not mere grief); (2) a close tie of love and affection with the primary victim; (3) proximity in time and space to the event or its immediate aftermath; (4) the shock was caused by directly perceiving the event/aftermath with one's own unaided senses; and (5) psychiatric harm to a person of normal fortitude was reasonably foreseeable (Alcock v CC South Yorkshire).

  26. What duty does an employer owe to employees, and what are its components?

    An employer owes a non-delegable personal duty to take reasonable care for the employee's safety (Wilsons & Clyde Coal v English), comprising: (1) competent staff/co-workers; (2) a safe place of work; (3) safe and proper plant and equipment; and (4) a safe system of work (including supervision).

  27. What is vicarious liability and what are its two requirements?

    Vicarious liability makes an employer strictly liable for torts committed by an employee. Requirements: (1) a relationship of employment (or akin to employment); and (2) the tort was committed in the course of employment — i.e. a 'close connection' between the wrongful act and the employee's authorised duties (Lister v Hesley Hall; Mohamud).

  28. Compare the duty owed under the Occupiers' Liability Act 1957 with that under the 1984 Act.

    OLA 1957: the occupier owes lawful visitors a 'common duty of care' — to take reasonable care to see the visitor is reasonably safe in using the premises for the permitted purposes (s.2(2)). OLA 1984: the occupier owes trespassers a more limited duty (to take reasonable care for their safety against a known danger) only if the s.1(3) conditions are met, and only for personal injury (not property damage).

  29. Distinguish the defences of contributory negligence and volenti non fit injuria, including their effect.

    Contributory negligence (Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945): the claimant's own fault contributed to the harm; damages are reduced by a just and equitable proportion — a partial defence. Volenti non fit injuria: the claimant voluntarily and freely accepted the full legal risk with knowledge of it; it is a complete defence, barring the claim entirely. Illegality (ex turpi causa) is also a complete defence.

Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1) FAQ

What is in the Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1) syllabus?

Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1) is split into 4 chapters: Formation and Content of Contracts, Vitiating Factors and Discharge, Contractual Remedies and Tort: Negligence and Liability. Together they contain 13 topics and 36 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1)?

4 chapters, containing 13 topics and 36 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Tort: Negligence and Liability, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Solicitors Qualifying Examination (SQE) Contract and Tort (FLK1)?

Yes — a 49-card Contract and Tort (FLK1) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.