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PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing Syllabus
The Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing syllabus for PNC Licensing Examination in full: 7 chapters and 28 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing flashcards with answers.
Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing syllabus: all 7 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Nursing Profession and History
4 topics- Evolution of nursing and historical figures
- Pakistan Nursing Council and regulatory framework
- Roles, scope, and categories of nursing practice
- Professional organizations and registration
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Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
4 topics- Assessment and nursing diagnosis
- Planning and goal setting
- Implementation and evaluation
- Documentation and reporting
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Basic Nursing Skills and Procedures
4 topics- Vital signs measurement
- Hygiene and personal care
- Positioning, mobility, and body mechanics
- Specimen collection
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Infection Prevention and Control
4 topics- Chain of infection and asepsis
- Hand hygiene and standard precautions
- Sterilization and disinfection
- Isolation techniques and PPE
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Health Assessment
4 topics- History taking and interview techniques
- Physical examination techniques
- Head-to-toe assessment
- Systemic assessment
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Comfort, Rest, and Safety
4 topics- Pain assessment and management
- Sleep and rest
- Patient safety and fall prevention
- Wound care and pressure injury prevention
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Nutrition and Fluid Balance
4 topics- Principles of nutrition
- Enteral and parenteral feeding
- Fluid and electrolyte balance
- Intake and output monitoring
PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing flashcards — 50 questions with answers
Who is considered the founder of modern nursing, and what was her major contribution during the Crimean War (1853-1856)?
Florence Nightingale. She organized sanitary care for wounded soldiers, reduced mortality through hygiene and ventilation, and pioneered statistical recording of health data; known as 'The Lady with the Lamp.'
What year did Florence Nightingale establish the first formal nursing school, and where?
1860, at St. Thomas' Hospital, London (the Nightingale Training School for Nurses).
Which nurse founded the American Red Cross, and in what year?
Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross in 1881.
In what year was the Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) established, and under what law?
The Pakistan Nursing Council was established in 1948 under the Pakistan Nursing Council Act of 1952 (the regulatory body originated in 1948 and was formalized by the 1952 Act).
What is the primary function of the Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC)?
To regulate nursing education and practice in Pakistan: it sets curriculum standards, accredits nursing institutions, registers/licenses nurses, midwives, and LHVs, and maintains professional standards and ethics.
Under which federal ministry does the Pakistan Nursing Council operate?
The Ministry of National Health Services, Regulations and Coordination (Government of Pakistan).
Name the main categories of nursing personnel registered by the Pakistan Nursing Council.
Registered Nurse (RN), Registered Midwife (RM), Lady Health Visitor (LHV), Nursing Auxiliary/Nursing Assistant, and specialized post-basic categories (e.g., public health, psychiatric nursing).
Define 'scope of practice' in nursing.
The range of roles, responsibilities, functions, and activities a nurse is legally permitted and educationally prepared to perform, as defined by the regulatory body (PNC) and the nurse's qualifications.
What is the difference between a Registered Nurse (RN) and a Lady Health Visitor (LHV) in Pakistan?
An RN provides comprehensive clinical nursing care across hospital and community settings after a general nursing diploma/degree; an LHV focuses on community/primary health care, maternal-child health, immunization, and health education.
What international professional organization represents nurses globally, and when was it founded?
The International Council of Nurses (ICN), founded in 1899; it is the world's first and widest-reaching international organization for health professionals.
List the five steps of the nursing process in correct order.
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation (ADPIE).
Define 'nursing assessment.'
The systematic and continuous collection, organization, validation, and documentation of subjective and objective data about a patient's health status.
Differentiate subjective data from objective data in nursing assessment.
Subjective data are what the patient states/feels (symptoms, e.g., 'I feel nauseous'); objective data are measurable/observable signs the nurse detects (e.g., temperature 39 C, rash).
What is a nursing diagnosis, and how does it differ from a medical diagnosis?
A nursing diagnosis is a clinical judgment about a patient's response to actual or potential health problems that nurses are licensed to treat. A medical diagnosis identifies a disease/pathology treated by physicians. Example nursing: 'Impaired skin integrity'; medical: 'Diabetes mellitus.'
What organization developed the standardized nursing diagnosis taxonomy?
NANDA International (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association).
What are the three components of a PES-format nursing diagnosis statement?
P = Problem (diagnostic label), E = Etiology (related/'related to' factors), S = Signs and symptoms ('as evidenced by' the defining characteristics).
In the planning phase, what does a SMART goal stand for?
Specific, Measurable, Achievable/Attainable, Relevant/Realistic, and Time-bound.
Differentiate a short-term goal from a long-term goal in nursing care planning.
A short-term goal is achievable within hours to about a week; a long-term goal extends over weeks, months, or until discharge and addresses ongoing/chronic needs.
What is the difference between an independent and a dependent nursing intervention?
Independent (nurse-initiated) interventions are actions a nurse performs autonomously (e.g., repositioning); dependent interventions require a physician's order (e.g., administering prescribed medication). Collaborative/interdependent interventions involve teamwork with other professionals.
What occurs during the evaluation phase of the nursing process?
The nurse compares the patient's actual outcomes against the expected outcomes/goals, determines whether goals were met, partially met, or not met, and revises the care plan accordingly.
Show the other 30 Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing flashcards
What does the documentation principle 'If it wasn't documented, it wasn't done' mean?
Legally and professionally, only documented care is considered to have been provided; accurate, timely charting is the official record and legal proof of care given.
List key characteristics of effective nursing documentation.
Accurate, factual, complete, current/timely, organized, legible, and confidential; uses objective language and approved abbreviations.
What does the SBAR communication tool stand for, and when is it used?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. It is a structured handoff/reporting tool used during shift change and when communicating patient status to physicians/colleagues.
List the four main (cardinal) vital signs.
Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, and Blood Pressure (pain is often called the 'fifth vital sign').
What is the normal adult body temperature range, and the average oral value?
Normal range about 36.5-37.5 C (97.7-99.5 F); average oral temperature is 37 C (98.6 F).
What is the normal resting heart rate (pulse) for an adult?
60-100 beats per minute.
What is the normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest?
12-20 breaths per minute.
What is the normal adult blood pressure value, and how is hypertension defined?
Normal is about 120/80 mmHg. Hypertension is generally defined as a sustained BP at or above 140/90 mmHg (or 130/80 by some newer guidelines).
Name the most common pulse site used to check circulation in an emergency in adults versus infants.
Adults: carotid artery. Infants: brachial artery.
Define tachycardia and bradycardia.
Tachycardia is a heart rate above 100 bpm; bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 bpm in an adult.
What is the purpose of personal hygiene care provided by nurses, and name common types of bed baths?
To maintain skin integrity, prevent infection, promote comfort and circulation, and support self-esteem. Types include complete bed bath, partial bed bath, and assisted/self bath.
What is the recommended position to prevent pressure ulcers, and how often should an immobile patient be repositioned?
Reposition the patient at least every 2 hours; use frequent position changes and pressure-relieving devices to redistribute pressure over bony prominences.
Define Fowler's position and state its main clinical use.
A semi-sitting position with the head of the bed elevated 45-60 degrees. Used to ease breathing (respiratory/cardiac patients) and facilitate eating.
Describe the Sims' (lateral recumbent) position and a common use.
A semi-prone side-lying position with the lower arm behind the body and upper knee flexed. Used for enemas, rectal examinations, and for unconscious patients to aid drainage of secretions.
State the key principles of correct body mechanics when lifting a patient.
Maintain a wide base of support, bend the knees (not the back), keep the load close to the body, use large leg muscles, keep the back straight, and avoid twisting; push or pull rather than lift when possible.
What is the correct procedure for collecting a clean-catch (midstream) urine specimen?
Clean the perineum/meatus with antiseptic, have the patient begin voiding into the toilet, then collect the midstream portion in a sterile container without touching the inside, and avoid the first and last urine flow.
List the six links in the chain of infection.
1) Infectious agent, 2) Reservoir, 3) Portal of exit, 4) Mode of transmission, 5) Portal of entry, 6) Susceptible host.
Differentiate medical asepsis from surgical asepsis.
Medical asepsis (clean technique) reduces the number and spread of microorganisms (e.g., handwashing). Surgical asepsis (sterile technique) eliminates all microorganisms, including spores, from an object or area (e.g., during invasive procedures).
According to the WHO, what are the 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene'?
1) Before touching a patient, 2) Before a clean/aseptic procedure, 3) After body fluid exposure risk, 4) After touching a patient, 5) After touching patient surroundings.
What is the recommended duration for handwashing with soap and water?
At least 20-40 seconds (WHO recommends 40-60 seconds for the full technique); alcohol-based hand rub takes about 20-30 seconds.
Define 'standard precautions' in infection control.
A set of infection-prevention practices applied to ALL patients regardless of diagnosis, treating all blood, body fluids, secretions, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as potentially infectious (includes hand hygiene, PPE, safe injection practices).
Differentiate sterilization from disinfection.
Sterilization destroys ALL microorganisms including bacterial spores; disinfection eliminates most pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily all spores, and is used on inanimate surfaces/objects.
Name the most common method of sterilization using moist heat and its standard parameters.
Autoclaving (steam under pressure): typically 121 C at 15 psi for 15-20 minutes, or 134 C for ~3-4 minutes.
Classify the levels of disinfectants (Spaulding classification).
High-level (kills all microbes except high numbers of spores - for semi-critical items), Intermediate-level (kills mycobacteria, most viruses/bacteria), and Low-level (kills most bacteria, some viruses/fungi - for non-critical items).
Differentiate airborne, droplet, and contact transmission-based isolation precautions with an example disease for each.
Airborne (small particles, e.g., tuberculosis, measles - requires N95/negative-pressure room); Droplet (large respiratory droplets, e.g., influenza, meningitis - requires surgical mask); Contact (direct/indirect touch, e.g., MRSA, C. difficile - requires gown and gloves).
What is the correct sequence for DONNING (putting on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Gown, then mask/respirator, then goggles/face shield, then gloves.
What is the correct sequence for DOFFING (removing) PPE?
Gloves, then goggles/face shield, then gown, then mask/respirator; perform hand hygiene after removal.
Differentiate open-ended from closed-ended questions in a nursing interview.
Open-ended questions invite a detailed narrative response (e.g., 'How are you feeling today?') and encourage elaboration; closed-ended questions elicit a brief, specific 'yes/no' or one-word answer (e.g., 'Do you have pain?').
Name the four fundamental techniques of physical examination in their usual order.
Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, and Auscultation. (Exception: for abdominal exams, auscultation is done before palpation/percussion to avoid altering bowel sounds.)
What does the OPQRST mnemonic assess during history taking of a symptom such as pain?
Onset, Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, and Timing of the symptom.
PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing FAQ
What is in the PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing syllabus?
PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing is split into 7 chapters: Nursing Profession and History, Nursing Process and Critical Thinking, Basic Nursing Skills and Procedures, Infection Prevention and Control, Health Assessment, Comfort, Rest, and Safety and Nutrition and Fluid Balance. Together they contain 28 topics.
How many chapters are in PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing?
7 chapters, containing 28 topics. The largest chapter is Nursing Profession and History, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for PNC Licensing Examination Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing?
Yes — a 50-card Foundations and Fundamentals of Nursing deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.