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NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) Syllabus
The Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) syllabus for NExT in full: 6 chapters, 31 topics and 22 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) flashcards with answers.
Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) syllabus: all 6 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Principles of Surgery and Perioperative Care
5 topics- Wound Healing and Surgical Site Infection
- Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Management
- Shock and Hemorrhage
- Hypovolemic, septic, cardiogenic shock
- Nutrition in Surgical Patients
- Surgical Audit, Consent and Day-Care Surgery
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Gastrointestinal and Hepatobiliary Surgery
6 topics- Acute Abdomen and Peritonitis
- Appendicitis, perforation, intestinal obstruction
- Hernias
- Inguinal, femoral, incisional; complications
- Hepatobiliary Disorders
- Gallstones, cholecystitis, obstructive jaundice
- Pancreatic Disorders
- Acute and chronic pancreatitis, carcinoma
- Gastrointestinal Malignancies
- Esophageal, gastric, colorectal carcinoma
- Anorectal Disorders
- Hemorrhoids, fistula-in-ano, fissure
- Acute Abdomen and Peritonitis
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Trauma, Breast, Endocrine and Vascular Surgery
5 topics- Polytrauma Management
- ATLS primary and secondary survey
- Head, chest and abdominal trauma
- Breast Diseases
- Benign breast disease and carcinoma breast
- Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
- Solitary nodule, goiter, thyroid malignancy
- Vascular Surgery
- Peripheral arterial disease, varicose veins, aneurysms
- Burns and Reconstruction
- Burn assessment, fluid resuscitation, grafts and flaps
- Polytrauma Management
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Orthopedics and Musculoskeletal Disorders
5 topics- Fractures and Dislocations
- Principles of fracture healing and fixation
- Common fractures: Colles, hip, spine
- Bone and Joint Infections
- Osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, skeletal TB
- Bone Tumors
- Benign and malignant; osteosarcoma, GCT
- Degenerative and Metabolic Bone Disease
- Osteoarthritis, osteoporosis, rickets
- Congenital and Pediatric Orthopedics
- CTEV, DDH, cerebral palsy
- Fractures and Dislocations
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Anesthesiology and Critical Care
5 topics- Preoperative Assessment and ASA Grading
- General and Regional Anesthesia
- Spinal, epidural, nerve blocks
- Airway Management and Resuscitation
- BLS, ACLS, difficult airway
- Pain Management and Analgesia
- Mechanical Ventilation and ICU Monitoring
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Radiodiagnosis and Imaging
5 topics- Principles of Radiography and Contrast Studies
- Cross-Sectional Imaging
- CT, MRI, ultrasonography principles
- Chest and Cardiac Imaging
- Abdominal and Pelvic Imaging
- Interventional Radiology and Radiation Safety
NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the four classic phases of wound healing and their approximate timeframes?
1) Hemostasis (immediate), 2) Inflammation (day 1-5), 3) Proliferation/fibroplasia (day 5 to ~3 weeks, collagen type III), 4) Remodeling/maturation (3 weeks to 1 year, collagen III replaced by type I).
How are surgical wounds classified for infection risk, and what are typical SSI rates for each?
Clean (~1-2%), Clean-contaminated (~3-5%, controlled entry of viscus), Contaminated (~10%, gross spillage/acute inflammation), Dirty/infected (>25%, established infection/perforation).
By what time after surgery does a surgical site infection conventionally occur (without implant vs with implant)?
Within 30 days of surgery, or within 90 days (up to 1 year by older CDC criteria) if a prosthetic implant is left in place.
State the Maintenance fluid requirement using the 4-2-1 rule.
4 mL/kg/hr for first 10 kg + 2 mL/kg/hr for next 10 kg + 1 mL/kg/hr for each kg above 20 kg.
What is the composition of Ringer's lactate (Hartmann's solution)?
Na+ 130, K+ 4-5, Ca2+ 2-3, Cl- 109-111, lactate 28 mmol/L; isotonic, used for resuscitation.
Give the anion gap formula and the normal range.
Anion gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-); normal 8-12 mmol/L (correct for albumin: add 2.5 per 1 g/dL fall in albumin).
List the four classes of hemorrhagic shock by the ATLS classification with blood loss percentages.
Class I: <15% (<750 mL); Class II: 15-30% (750-1500 mL); Class III: 30-40% (1500-2000 mL); Class IV: >40% (>2000 mL).
What is the earliest reliable vital-sign change in hemorrhagic (hypovolemic) shock?
Tachycardia with narrowed pulse pressure (rising diastolic from increased SVR); hypotension is a late sign appearing after ~30% loss.
Differentiate the hemodynamic profile of septic vs cardiogenic vs hypovolemic shock (CO, SVR, CVP).
Septic (warm/distributive): high/normal CO, low SVR, low CVP. Cardiogenic: low CO, high SVR, high CVP. Hypovolemic: low CO, high SVR, low CVP.
What is the formula for daily caloric requirement and protein requirement in a stable surgical patient?
~25-30 kcal/kg/day total energy; protein 1.0-1.5 g/kg/day (up to 2 g/kg in catabolic/burn states).
What is refeeding syndrome and its hallmark electrolyte abnormality?
Metabolic disturbance on reintroducing nutrition to malnourished patients; hallmark is hypophosphatemia (also hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, thiamine deficiency, fluid overload).
What is the ASA physical status classification (I-VI) in brief?
I: normal healthy; II: mild systemic disease; III: severe systemic disease; IV: severe disease that is a constant threat to life; V: moribund, not expected to survive without operation; VI: brain-dead organ donor. 'E' suffix = emergency.
What are the three valid elements of informed surgical consent?
Disclosure of relevant information (nature, risks, benefits, alternatives), patient capacity/competence, and voluntariness (no coercion).
What is the most common cause of acute abdomen requiring surgery, and McBurney's point location?
Acute appendicitis; McBurney's point lies 1/3 of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.
Distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary peritonitis.
Primary: spontaneous bacterial peritonitis without GI perforation (e.g., SBP in cirrhosis). Secondary: from GI perforation/contamination (most common). Tertiary: persistent/recurrent infection after adequate treatment of secondary peritonitis.
What free air sign on erect chest X-ray indicates hollow viscus perforation?
Free gas under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum).
Differentiate direct and indirect inguinal hernia by their relation to the inferior epigastric vessels.
Indirect hernia passes lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels through the deep ring; direct hernia bulges medial to them through Hesselbach's triangle.
What are the boundaries of Hesselbach's triangle?
Medially: lateral border of rectus abdominis; laterally: inferior epigastric vessels; inferiorly: inguinal ligament.
Define a strangulated hernia and what distinguishes it from an obstructed hernia.
Strangulated = compromised blood supply causing ischemia/gangrene of contents (tender, irreducible, systemically unwell). Obstructed = lumen blocked causing intestinal obstruction but blood supply initially intact.
What is Charcot's triad and Reynolds' pentad in cholangitis?
Charcot's triad: RUQ pain, fever, jaundice. Reynolds' pentad: Charcot's triad + hypotension/shock + altered mental status (suppurative cholangitis).
Show the other 31 Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) flashcards
What is Courvoisier's law?
In the presence of jaundice, a palpable non-tender gallbladder is unlikely to be due to stones (suggests malignant obstruction of the CBD, e.g., pancreatic head cancer).
List Ranson's criteria categories used to assess acute pancreatitis severity.
At admission: age >55, WBC >16,000, glucose >200, LDH >350, AST >250. At 48h: Hct fall >10%, BUN rise >5 mg/dL, Ca <8, PaO2 <60, base deficit >4, fluid sequestration >6 L.
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis, and the most specific lab marker?
Gallstones (then alcohol); serum lipase is more specific and stays elevated longer than amylase.
Which gene mutation defines hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome) and FAP?
Lynch: DNA mismatch repair gene mutations (MLH1, MSH2, etc.). FAP: APC gene mutation on chromosome 5q21.
What is the tumor marker for colorectal cancer used in follow-up, and for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Colorectal: CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen). HCC: AFP (alpha-fetoprotein).
Differentiate the typical presentation of right-sided vs left-sided colon cancer.
Right-sided: occult bleeding, iron-deficiency anemia, mass (large caliber, liquid stool). Left-sided: change in bowel habit, obstruction, fresh bleeding (narrower lumen, solid stool).
What is the classification of internal hemorrhoids by degree?
Grade I: bleed, no prolapse; Grade II: prolapse on straining, reduce spontaneously; Grade III: prolapse, need manual reduction; Grade IV: irreducible prolapse.
What is the Goodsall's rule for anal fistula tracts?
Fistulas with external opening anterior to the transverse anal line open into the anal canal in a straight radial line; posterior openings curve to open in the posterior midline.
In polytrauma, what is the correct ATLS primary survey sequence?
ABCDE: Airway (with C-spine control), Breathing, Circulation (with hemorrhage control), Disability (GCS/pupils), Exposure/Environment.
What is the lethal triad of trauma?
Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy — a self-perpetuating cycle worsening hemorrhage and mortality.
Which breast quadrant is the most common site for breast carcinoma, and the most common histologic type?
Upper outer quadrant; invasive ductal carcinoma (NST) is the most common histologic type.
What is peau d'orange and what does it signify in breast disease?
Dimpled, orange-peel skin appearance from dermal lymphatic edema/obstruction; signifies locally advanced or inflammatory breast carcinoma.
What nerve injury causes a 'winged scapula' after axillary surgery?
Injury to the long thoracic nerve (of Bell) supplying serratus anterior.
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, and the antibody involved in Graves' disease?
Graves' disease; caused by TSH receptor-stimulating antibodies (TRAb/thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin).
Which nerve is at risk during thyroidectomy and what is the effect of unilateral injury?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve; unilateral injury causes hoarseness (paramedian vocal cord); bilateral injury can cause airway obstruction/stridor.
What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism and its classic biochemistry?
Solitary parathyroid adenoma; high serum calcium with high/inappropriately normal PTH and low phosphate.
What is the ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) and what value indicates significant peripheral arterial disease?
ABPI = ankle systolic BP / brachial systolic BP. Normal 0.9-1.3; <0.9 indicates PAD; <0.4 indicates critical limb ischemia.
List the '6 Ps' of acute limb ischemia.
Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis, Perishing cold (poikilothermia).
How is the burn surface area estimated using the Wallace Rule of Nines in adults?
Head 9%, each arm 9%, each leg 18%, anterior trunk 18%, posterior trunk 18%, perineum 1%.
State the Parkland formula for burn fluid resuscitation.
4 mL x body weight (kg) x %TBSA burned of Ringer's lactate over 24h; half given in first 8 hours from time of injury, remainder over next 16 hours.
Define Salter-Harris fracture types I-V.
I: through physis only; II: physis + metaphysis (most common); III: physis + epiphysis (intra-articular); IV: metaphysis + physis + epiphysis; V: crush injury to physis (worst prognosis).
What is the difference between a Colles' and a Smith's fracture?
Colles': distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation/displacement ('dinner fork'). Smith's: distal radius fracture with volar (palmar) angulation ('reverse Colles').
What is the most common organism in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis, and in sickle cell patients?
Staphylococcus aureus overall; Salmonella is characteristically associated with sickle cell disease.
Differentiate the typical radiographic features of osteosarcoma vs Ewing sarcoma.
Osteosarcoma: metaphysis of long bones, sunburst pattern + Codman's triangle, adolescents. Ewing sarcoma: diaphysis, onion-skin/lamellated periosteal reaction, younger children, t(11;22) translocation.
What is the most common benign and most common malignant primary bone tumor?
Most common benign: osteochondroma. Most common primary malignant: osteosarcoma (multiple myeloma is the most common overall malignant bone tumor).
Differentiate osteoporosis from osteomalacia biochemically.
Osteoporosis: normal calcium, phosphate, ALP (reduced bone mass). Osteomalacia: low/normal calcium, low phosphate, high ALP, low vitamin D (defective mineralization).
What is the Ortolani and Barlow test used to detect in neonates?
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH); Ortolani relocates a dislocated hip (clunk in), Barlow dislocates a dislocatable hip (clunk out).
What are the three main types of regional anesthesia and the key landmark difference between spinal and epidural?
Spinal, epidural, and peripheral nerve blocks. Spinal: injected into subarachnoid/CSF space (below L2 to avoid cord), small drug dose, rapid dense block. Epidural: into epidural (potential) space, larger volume, slower onset, catheter for continuous infusion.
What is the recommended chest compression rate and depth in adult CPR, and compression-to-ventilation ratio?
Rate 100-120/min, depth 5-6 cm (at least 2 inches), 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for single/dual rescuer without advanced airway.
What contrast agent type is contraindicated in suspected bowel perforation, and which is preferred?
Barium is contraindicated (causes barium peritonitis); water-soluble iodinated contrast (e.g., Gastrografin) is preferred when perforation is suspected.
What imaging modality is the gold standard for soft tissue/spinal cord/ligament evaluation and which uses ionizing radiation: MRI or CT?
MRI is the gold standard for soft tissue, cord, ligaments and uses NO ionizing radiation (uses magnetic fields). CT uses ionizing radiation and excels at bone and acute hemorrhage.
NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) FAQ
What is in the NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) syllabus?
NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) is split into 6 chapters: Principles of Surgery and Perioperative Care, Gastrointestinal and Hepatobiliary Surgery, Trauma, Breast, Endocrine and Vascular Surgery, Orthopedics and Musculoskeletal Disorders, Anesthesiology and Critical Care and Radiodiagnosis and Imaging. Together they contain 31 topics and 22 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis)?
6 chapters, containing 31 topics and 22 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Gastrointestinal and Hepatobiliary Surgery, with 6 topics.
Are there flashcards for NExT Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis)?
Yes — a 51-card Surgery and Allied Specialties (General Surgery, Orthopedics, Anesthesiology, Radiodiagnosis) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.